Answers and Explanations

A1:

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because his new work is not a project, it is a program. The PMI definition of a project is a "temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service." Because there is no end to the work, it would not qualify as a project. Answer B is incorrect for the same reason. Answer D should be incorrect unless George is in the wrong type of work.

A2:

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because it pertains to the processes. Answer C is incorrect because these are the five phases of a project. Answer D is incorrect because there are 39 processes, not knowledge areas, in the PMBOK.

A3:

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because it includes a knowledge area. Answer B is incorrect because it includes a knowledge area. Answer D is incorrect because it includes a knowledge area, which includes cost estimating.

A4:

Answer A is correct because Project Management human resource planning does not include skills analysis. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because these are areas that are included in Project Management human resource planning.

A5:

Answer B is correct because the PMI definition of Project Management is "the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements." Consequently, Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

A6:

Answer D is the best answer. Answer A is incorrect because the prototype is an output of the process. Answers B and C are incorrect because iterations are not deliverables, nor are they work products.

A7:

Answer D is correct. All of these choices are correct, except customer buy-in is not part of the process. "Waterfall" methodology includes six steps: requirements, analysis, design, development, testing, and implementation.

A8:

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because the core processes do not necessarily take more time and resources than facilitating processes. Answer C is incorrect because core processes are not usually tied with micromanagement of tasks. Answer D is incorrect because core processes are performed in the same sequence on most projects.

A9:

Answer D is correct. In this scenario, it is the best response. A project coordinator's authority and decision-making ability are generally limited to minor items. Senior management will generally make the significant decisions impacting the scope and success of the project. There is not enough information given to determine whether Answers A or C are correct, and in a project-based organization, the project manager would be empowered to make these decisions. Therefore, Answer B is incorrect.

A10:

Answer A is correct. A project coordinator does make decisions on nonmajor items impacting the project and does have some authority to influence the project. Therefore, Answers B and C are incorrect. The project expeditor is focused on coordinating communications and is not able to make decisions. Therefore, Answer D is incorrect.

A11:

Answer B is correct. The other step in the four-step project selection process is to evaluate each opportunity against the criteria. Wage structures are not associated with the project selection process. Answers A, C, and D are steps that are involved in the project selection process, and are therefore incorrect for this question.

A12:

Answer D is the best answer. Answer A is incorrect because this list includes outputs of Project Management processes, which could later be used as tools. Answer B is incorrect because it is not a PMBOK term. Answer C is incorrect because not all of these deliverables are significant enough to be considered milestones.

A13:

Answer C is correct. In a functional organization, the project manager has the least support and the least ability to control project resources. In a balanced matrix organization or a project coordinator situation, the project manager would be empowered with more control over resources or would be able to leverage his senior management to influence resource assignments. Therefore, Answers A and D are incorrect. Tight matrix deals with the co-location of project team members within a matrix organization and is not relevant to this question. Therefore, Answer B is incorrect.

A14:

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because it is not a correct statement and has nothing to do with ambiguous jurisdiction. Answer C is incorrect because ambiguous jurisdiction is not related to legal issues at a company. Answer D is incorrect because the statement is incorrect and is not related to ambiguous jurisdiction.

A15:

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because it is not a correct PMBOK term. Answer B is incorrect because a project manager has a low to moderate level of authority in these types of organizations. Answer D is incorrect because it is not a correct PMBOK term.

A16:

Answer D is the best answer. Answer A is incorrect because it does not answer the question. Answer B is incorrect because it is not the best answer. Answer C is incorrect because the statement is incorrect and is not related to ambiguous jurisdiction.

A17:

Answer D is the best answer. The idea is not the catalyst that precedes the needs identification. The concept or idea is generally the output of the needs identification process. Therefore, it is not the correct answer. Answers A, B, and C (need, problem, opportunity) are triggers that signal the needs identification process and are therefore incorrect answers for this question.

A18:

Answer A is the best answer. The statement in Answer A is not true because cultural differences are not "always" a constraint on a project. Answers B, C, and D are all true statements and therefore incorrect responses to this question.

A19:

Answer C is the correct answer. Answer A is incorrect because it does not answer the question. Answer B is incorrect, although it provides plenty of information to confuse the reader. Answer D is incorrect because a standard is "a document approved by a recognized body that provides for common and repeated use, rules, guidelines, or characteristics for products, processes, or services with which compliance is not mandatory." The government does not enforce guidelines.

A20:

Answer D is correct. Scope, quality, and cost are the triple constraints. Quality is a function of these three areas and can impact them; however, it is not considered one of the components of the triple constraint. Therefore, Answers A, B, and C are incorrect.

A21:

Answer C is correct. This is an example of looking for the best response. Effective negotiation and communication skills are important to the other three situations, too, but the project team leadership aspect is where these skills are essential and where they will have the greatest impact on project success. Therefore, Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

A22:

Answer A is the best answer. Many subject matter experts are very proficient in their area of expertise; however, they do not have the other necessary Project Management attributes associated with time management, scope control, and budgeting skills. Answer B could be correct because subject matter experts frequently understand the appropriate leadership style for managing the project, but it is not the best answer. The triple constraints are the areas in which many subject matter experts encounter problems and the trade-offs they must encounter as they go forward with their project. Answer C is incorrect because subject matter experts do not routinely lack social and communication skills. Answer D is incorrect because project managers don't delegate authority to subordinates. Project managers have all the responsibility and none of the functional authority.

A23:

Answer D is the correct answer. Answer A is incorrect because quality and resources are not process groups. Answer B is incorrect because scheduling, reporting, and approval are not process groups. Answer C is incorrect because none of these are PMBOK process groups.

A24:

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because there is a definite difference between the two terms. Answer B is incorrect because just the opposite is true. Answer D is incorrect because a program is a group of projects, which are temporary endeavors.

A25:

Answer B is the best answer. Answer A is incorrect because it is not a PMBOK term for the process described in this question. Answer C is incorrect because progressive elaboration is a totally different aspect of Project Management, although buy-in might be involved in the process. Answer D is incorrect because this is not related to the buy-in process.

A26:

Answer C is the correct answer. Answers A and B are incorrect because you are not allowed to take "cheat sheets" to the test, although you need to take a driver's license or photo ID. Answer D is incorrect because you do not need to present your PMI card at the testing center.

A27:

Answer B is the correct answer. Answer A is incorrect because the project life cycle includes initiation, planning, execution, control, and closeout. Answers C and D are incorrect because product development and R and D do not extend throughout the life cycle of a product.

A28:

Answer A is the correct answer. Answer B is incorrect because a project plan is the output of the planning process. Answer C is incorrect because it is not the correct term for this question. A work authorization is a control mechanism that is used to keep the project on track by getting the correct work on time. Answer D is incorrect because this is a fake term for this question.

A29:

Answer C is the best answer. Although Answers A, B, and D may also be correct to a certain degree, Answer C is the best answer because the question describes the planning, knowledge transfer, and scheduling that is commonly done during the kickoff meeting with the stakeholders and team members.

A30:

Answer D is correct. Answer A is incorrect because you are providing a service that the customer did not request; therefore, it might not be important to her and unnecessary. Answer B is incorrect because scope creep is generally an expansion of the scope of the project at the customer's request and the customer did not request these reports. Answer C is incorrect because an additional report does not always mean increased diligence with a project.

A31:

Answer B is correct. A project life cycle is composed of one or more phases. Answers A, C, and D do not fully or accurately describe the relationship between project phases and project life cycle and are therefore incorrect.

A32:

Answer A is correct. The PMIS is used to distribute the outputs of Project Management processes. Answer B is incorrect because tools are not disseminated during a project. Answer C is incorrect because deliverables are not used to gather, integrate, or disseminate the outputs of the processes. Answer D is incorrect because scope changes are just an example of an output.

A33:

Answer B is the best answer. According to PMI, generally accepted indicates that the practices and knowledge are applicable most of the time. Answer A is incorrect because it does not answer the question. Although the PMBOK might not be accepted in every country around the world, it continues to expand every year. Answer C is incorrect because generally accepted is the focus of the question and this answer is not a full response to the question. Answer D, although true, also does not address the definition of generally accepted.

A34:

Answer D is correct. The PMI definition of a project is "a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service." Therefore, Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they encompass parts of the definition in the answer. Temporary indicates that the project has a definite beginning and ending. The uniqueness is what distinguishes the product or services from different types of projects.

A35:

Answer D is correct. Answer A is incorrect because Meredith and Mann did not develop an autocratic management theory. Answer B is incorrect because Deming's theories did not involve any of the X and Y theories that were developed by McGregor. Answer C is incorrect because Earned Value is not related to X or Y management theories.

A36:

Answer B is correct. The progressive elaborations of a project integrate the temporary and unique characteristics of a project. Because a project proceeds in steps over time, the progress continues forward incrementally. This process is developed thoroughly with input from the team and plenty of details. Although the characteristics are defined broadly in the beginning of the project, they begin to become more defined with each elaboration as the project progresses. Answer A is incorrect because scope creep is only common if there was poor planning for the project or an effective change control management plan was not utilized correctly. Answer C is incorrect because it is not related to the evolution of the blueprints for the shuttle. Answer D is incorrect because a change control document is generally not needed for progressive elaborations of the blueprints unless it has a major impact upon the project development.

A37:

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because project managers are not effectively utilized if they are always scheduling and coordinating resources for daily operations. Answer B is incorrect because project managers are not the best resource for providing estimates on daily operations and time allocations; people doing the actual work are the best sources. Answer D is incorrect because you do not specify different phases of ongoing operations.

A38:

Answer C is correct because procurement is not considered part of general management, although organizing is part of general management. General management also includes other supporting disciplines such as law, human resource management, and strategic planning. This frequently overlaps into areas such as financial forecasting, planning techniques, and organizational behavior. Therefore, Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are part of general management.

A39:

Answer A is correct. Industry groups, management specializations, technical elements, and functional departments are generally how application areas are defined. Therefore, Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because application areas are not defined in these types of terms.

A40:

Answer C is correct. The change control management plan should be described at the beginning of the project and provide details about how deliverables or other project-related artifacts can be changed during the project. If no procedures or guidelines are provided, chaos will develop because the stakeholders will not understand how they are to implement change within the project. Answer A is incorrect because a conservative approach is not always the best method to view projects if you are required to develop creative solutions to problems. Answer B is incorrect because frequent milestones are not the solution to effective change control management. Answer D is incorrect because rewards are not generally tied to the change control management process; however, rewards are frequently tied with timelines and the ability to provide projects ahead of schedule.

A41:

Answer C is correct. Open-heart surgery has a beginning and ending and therefore constitutes a project. The post-surgery maintenance and ongoing support is a program because it does not have a definite ending to the treatment. Answer A is incorrect because the heart usage timeline does not determine whether it is a project or a program. Answer B is incorrect because resource allocation does not determine whether the surgery is a project or a program. Answer D is incorrect because getting the skills and resources is not a program.

A42:

Answer B is correct. The communication management plan describes who and how the communication will be distributed. Answer A might be a fast method of distribution, but it should be explained thoroughly in the communication plan. Answer C is incorrect because the project manager does not need to wait until the kickoff meeting in order to communicate the information. If the kickoff is described in the communication management plan as the correct method to communicate this information, the kickoff is appropriate. However, the communication plan is the first source to draw from to determine if the kickoff meeting is the forum to utilize. Answer D is incorrect because it might not be the most efficient method to distribute the information.

A43:

Answer A is the best answer. The phase-end reviews are called phase exits, stage gates, and kill points because they provide a point to pause and determine whether the project should go forward or be stopped. Answer B is incorrect because the review and decision are not always milestones. Answer C is incorrect because the decision should not necessarily be based upon stakeholder expectations. Answer D is incorrect because the review and decision-making process can be swift if enough information is provided in a timely manner.

A44:

Answer D is correct. Change control management is utilized from the beginning to the end of the project in order to keep it focused with an emphasis on the time and budget. Answer A is incorrect because change control management is not separate from the other phases. Answer B is incorrect because the control plan must be throughout the other phases of a project. Its usage is not optional, and consistent utilization is imperative to managing scope creep and other scope expansions. Answer C is incorrect because the project sponsor is generally not responsible for the change control documentation, although it should be involved in the buy-in and approval process.

A45:

Answer D is correct. Answer A is incorrect because crashing the schedule involves scheduling extraneous amounts of resources in an attempt to decrease your timeline with the additional people. Answers B and C are incorrect because peak shaving and resource reallocation are used whenever you want to move extra resources from one time period to another. Fast tracking pushes the project along regardless of whether an approval has been completed. This can be the catalyst for the project to proceed into the next phase without loss of inertia.

A46:

Answer C is correct. The completion of milestones and deliverables provides validity to the direction of the project with an emphasis on results. The stakeholders are more involved in the beginning because the scope might be more open ended. However, this impact and involvement decreases as the scope is formalized and buy-in is achieved with the stakeholders. Answer A is incorrect because it does not correctly answer the question. Answer B is incorrect because time alone does not reduce risk, and stakeholders should not lose vision over time if the information is correctly documented and communicated. Answer D is incorrect because a risk analysis should have already begun regardless of whether the stakeholders have been identified.

A47:

Answer C is correct. The execution phase of a project has the highest level of activity and expense. The planning phase has the second-highest level of activity and expense. For most project life cycles, the intermediate phases consume the highest level of staffing and time. During the initial phase, the project begins to gain momentum as the level of activity rises. Therefore, Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

A48:

Answer D is correct. According to PMI, differences between or among stakeholders should be resolved in favor of the customer. Coming to a win/win resolution is a key element to effective Project Management while aligning business priorities with customer expectations. Answer A is incorrect because taking notes is not enough to resolve the problem. Answer B is a good first step, but it is not the best response. Answer C is incorrect because this might not resolve the problem.

A49:

Answer A is correct. As you go along the continuum from a functional to a projectized organization, the level of authority for a project manager increases. Answer B is incorrect because the level of authority increases as you progress from functional to projectized organizations. Answer C is incorrect because coercion power is not as effective in Project Management as other professions, such as the military. Answer D is incorrect because it does not answer the question completely.

A50:

Answer C is correct. The Project Management processes should be executed for each project life cycle phase and/or iteration. Answer A is incorrect because the Project Management processes are used to manage the progress of the project life cycle, and project life cycle phases are not normally associated with controlling and executing processes, for example. Answer B is incorrect because it is the opposite of the correct choice. Answer D is incorrect because a relationship can exist between the initiating, planning, and closing processes and traditional project life cycle phases (such as concept, analysis, and closure).



PMP Practice Questions Exam Cram 2
PMP Practice Questions Exam Cram 2
ISBN: 0789732564
EAN: 2147483647
Year: 2006
Pages: 46
Authors: David Francis

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