Project Control

Table of contents:

Answers and Explanations

A1:

Answer D is correct. Configuration management is a tool used for integrated change control. It is a procedure that is used to identify characteristics of an item and control any changes, record any changes, and audit such items to ensure that requirements are met. A performance report is an input to integrated change control. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not tools or techniques that are used with integrated change control.

A2:

Answer C is correct. Performance reports include information regarding the performance of the project. They may also include possible project issues. A change control system and a performance measurement are tools and techniques used in integrated change control, whereas lessons learned are an output of integrated change control. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not inputs to integrated change control.

A3:

Answer A is correct. A work authorization system requires that all work be completed at the right time and in the proper order. Such a system prevents work from being duplicated, neglected, or completed out of sequence. Although a formal sign-off system would aid such a concern, the proper term of a work authorization system is the best answer. Control charts graphically show the results of a given process over time. A change control board is a group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing and approving change requests. Answer B is incorrect because work sign off is generally done after the work is completed and does not proactively control work to be done in the future. Answer C is incorrect because control charts are graphic displays of results and are used to monitor types of output variables. Answer D is incorrect because the change control board is involved with changes to the scope of the project and generally does not micromanage the resources or work to be completed.

A4:

Answer D is correct. Corrective action is an output of integrated change control, not a tool or a technique. A change control system, performance measurement, and additional planning are all tools and techniques of integrated change control. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are tools that are used in integrated change control and therefore are incorrect for this question.

A5:

Answer C is correct. The work breakdown structure is utilized during the scope management process and is an input to scope change control. It is not an input to scope planning, scope definition, or initiation. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not inputs to the scope management process.

A6:

Answer A is the correct answer. Answer B is incorrect because a positive slack is beneficial to the project manager and negative slack is not. Answer C is incorrect because no slack indicates that the project will be performed within the time constraints that are mandated by the project. Answer D is incorrect because critical success factors are not associated with network diagrams.

A7:

Answer A is correct. Answers B, C, and D are associated with scope change control and are therefore incorrect answers to this question.

A8:

Answer A is correct. Proposed changes must either be rejected or approved and therefore incorporated into a new project baseline. Answer B is incorrect because all changes must be approved; none are automatically approved and performed within the project. Proposed changes must be included in an updated project baseline. Answer C is incorrect because the project plan does not necessarily change if the project is well planned. Answer D is incorrect because, although it is true that the project plan does facilitate communication between stakeholders, this is not the best answer. The project plan is important to change control because it documents the original approved schedule baseline.

A9:

Answer D is correct. Change requests are an input to scope change control, not an output. Scope changes, corrective action, and an adjusted baseline are all outputs of scope change control. Answer A, B, and C are outputs to change control and therefore are incorrect for this question.

A10:

Answer D is correct. Workaround plans and corrective action are outputs of risk monitoring and control, along with project change requests and a risk database. Answer A is incorrect because risk response audits and periodic risk reviews are tools and techniques for risk monitoring and control. Answer B is incorrect because both a risk management plan and a risk response plan are inputs to the risk monitoring and control process. Answer C is incorrect because, although corrective action is an output of risk monitoring and control, a risk management plan is an input to this process.

A11:

Answer B is correct. Both work results and operational definitions are inputs to quality control. Related work results include both process and product results. Operational definitions outline what something is and how the quality control process measures it. Answer A is incorrect because, although work results are an input to quality control, rework is an output that might result from the quality control process. Answer C is incorrect because quality improvement and rework are both outputs of quality control. Rework might be necessary to bring a defective item into conformance. Answer D is incorrect because control charts and Pareto diagrams are tools that can be utilized in quality control. Although control charts graphically display the results of a process over time, Pareto diagrams show how many results were generated in a specified category in order by frequency.

A12:

Answer B is correct. The cost performance index is the earned value divided by the actual cost. Although the earned value can be determined if the cost performance index and actual cost are known, this is not the best answer; earned value involves calculating the key values of planned value (PV, which is also BCWS) and actual cost (AC). Answer A is incorrect because budgeted cost of work scheduled is the same as the planned value, which is the part of the approved cost estimate planned to be spent on a given activity in a given period. It is therefore involved in the earned value calculation. Answer C is incorrect because earned value includes calculating the planned value, which is the part of the approved cost estimate planned to be spent on a given activity in a given period. Answer D is incorrect because the calculation of actual cost is included in earned value. Actual cost is the cost incurred on a given activity in a given period.

A13:

Answer A is correct. Acceptance by the customer involves scope verification (PMBOK section 5.4) which focuses on acceptance of the work results by the customer (the implication is that they were completed satisfactorily) and quality control, which is focused on the correctness of the results. Answer B is incorrect because the resources of the project team are more important than the human resources of the customer. Answer C is incorrect because the success of a project is not generally judged by being under budget. Answer D is incorrect because there is not correlation between fewer lessons learned and the success of a project.

A14:

Answer D is correct. As stated in the PMBOK, work that is not included in the WBS is not in the scope of the project. Answer A is incorrect because it is the definition of a project plan. Answer B is incorrect because it is a contract. Answer C is incorrect because it is a project scope statement.

A15:

Answer D is correct. Before the change is made, the project manager should communicate the impact to the sponsor so that he can determine if he wants to pursue the change. Answer A is incorrect because it might be necessary to change the scope in order for the project to be a success. Answer B is incorrect because a scope change document might not be necessary after the project manager explains the impact to the timeline and resource allocation to the sponsor. Answer D is incorrect because it is not appropriate to utilize a passive-aggressive approach to handle scope change issues.

A16:

Answer D is correct. Change requests can exist in many forms; however, they must be formal requests, as opposed to informal requests, developed within the context of a change control system consisting of documented procedures. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are forms of change requests and therefore incorrect answers to this question.

A17:

Answer A is correct. The PMBOK defines the WBS as a deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements that organizes and defines the total work scope of the project. Answer B is incorrect because the project plan is not initially the source that should be reviewed to determine an impact to the scope of the project. Answer C is incorrect because the contract is not the first document that is reviewed to compare scope changes. Answer D is incorrect because the scope management plan involves the processes and steps necessary for the change and is not used to assess how the scope will change.

A18:

Answer A is correct. Corrective action is anything that brings expected future project performance inline with the project plan. It often requires root-cause analysis to identify the cause of the problem. Schedule delivery can address the activity causing the deviation. It can also be planned and executed for activities delineated later in the schedule. Answer B is incorrect because corrective action does not necessarily require re-baselining the project plan. Answer C is incorrect because change request preparation would occur after the root cause analysis is performed. Answer D is incorrect because resource leveling is involved with planning and not associated with corrective actions.

A19:

Answer D is correct. Some extreme schedule delays require re-baselining to provide realistic data in which to measure performance. Re-baselining should be used as a last resort, however, and should be used with care so that historical data is not lost. Answer A is incorrect because resource leveling may be needed due to the new baseline. Answer B is incorrect because not all stakeholders would necessarily be involved in the approval of re-baselining the project. Answer C is incorrect because not all management personnel would necessarily be involved in the approval of re-baselining the project.

A20:

Answer B is correct. A schedule change control system is beneficial because it defines procedures for changing the project schedule and includes the documentation, tracking systems, and approval levels required for authorizing schedule changes.

A21:

Answer C is correct. A positive (greater than zero) schedule variance indicates that the project is ahead of schedule. A positive cost variance indicates that the project is under budget. Answer A is incorrect because the schedule variance may not be the only reason for the cost variance. Answer B is incorrect because the variance may not be favorable to the project. Answer D is incorrect because the cost variance may not be the only reason for the schedule variance.

A22:

Answer C is correct. The CPI is equal to the value of work remaining divided by the value of funds remaining. It is used to obtain the cost performance factor needed to complete all remaining work according to a financial goal set by management. Answer A is incorrect because CPI is not used to predict whether the project will be over budget. Answer B is incorrect because CPI is not used to predict all probable change requests. Answer D is incorrect because CPI does not determine the value of all projects being performed in an organization.

A23:

Answer A is correct. The bottom line profits that your client is interested in is operating profit. Operating profit is the amount of money earned and is calculated by subtracting direct and indirect costs from revenue. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not consider direct and indirect costs in their calculations.

A24:

Answer C is correct. Value engineering is a technique used in product analysis. Answer A is incorrect because a Pareto diagram, as stated by the PMBOK, is a histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by each identified cause. Answer B is incorrect because Monte Carlo analysis looks at multiple project simulations to calculate a distribution of likely results. Answer D is incorrect because fast-tracking is shortening the project schedule by overlapping tasks.

A25:

Answer D is correct. The undistributed budget is applied to project work that has not yet been tied to WBS items at or below the lowest level of reporting. Therefore, it is part of the performance measurement baseline and will probably be used in the performance of project work. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with the undistributed budget for this project.

A26:

Answer B is correct. Performance reports are an input to scope change control, as are the work breakdown structure, change requests, and the scope management plan. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are all tools and techniques used in scope change control.

A27:

Answer A is correct. The PMBOK states that changes may require expanding the scope or may allow shrinking it. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fully answer the question.

A28:

Answer B is correct. Preventing change from affecting execution is impossible. Change control allows for the effective execution and incorporation of a change into the project plan. The change control board is the body that accepts or rejects a change request. As such, it must be informed and is part of the change control system. Answer A is incorrect because a change control system is not used to prevent all changes to the project. Answer C is incorrect because it is just part of the change control system.

A29:

Answer A is correct. There is a great deal of uncertainty in initiating. As a project progresses through the different phases, the degree of uncertainty decreases. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they have a lesser degree of uncertainty than the initiation phase and therefore less risk.

A30:

Answer A is correct. PMIS stands for Project Management Information System, which is the system that is used to provide communication throughout the project, including historical information. Answers B and C are incorrect because they do not describe the Project Management Information System.

A31:

Answer B is correct. A work breakdown structure is not a way to build a project schedule. Answers A, C, and D are factual statements about the WBS.

A32:

Answer D is correct. Re-baselining a project is not a way to reduce the duration of activities. Answer A, B, and C are correct information and therefore incorrect answers to this question.

A33:

Answer B is correct. The PMBOK definition for a change control system says that it must have Answers A, C, and D (paperwork, approval requirements, and tracking mechanisms); therefore, Answer B is not part of a change control system.

A34:

Answer D is correct. Additional planning is a tool and technique used in scope change control. An adjusted baseline, lessons learned, and scope changes are all outputs of scope change control. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not tools or techniques that are used in scope change control.

A35:

Answer A is correct. Re-baselining is only necessary if a major change to the scope or timeline of the project has occurred. Weekly meetings are not a requirement; task updates can occur through other means. Answer B does not require re-baselining. Answer C is incorrect because weekly meetings are not required for schedule control.

A36:

Answer B is correct. Although Answers A and C might be correct, Answer B is the best answer. Rework will be deemed necessary and required through the quality control process.

A37:

Answer A is correct. Revised cost estimates are an output of cost control. The four inputs are cost baseline, performance reports, change requests, and a cost management plan. Answers B, C, and D are inputs to cost control and therefore incorrect answers for this question.

A38:

Answer D is correct. The PMBOK defines EAC as a forecast of most likely total project costs based on project performance and risk quantification. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not describe the estimate at completion.

A39:

Answer C is correct. Both positive and negative lessons learned should be documented throughout a project. Answers A and B are incorrect because they do not capture everything that should be incorporated into lessons learned that should be documented.

A40:

Answer C is correct. Risk monitoring and control keeps track of identified risks, monitors residual risks, identifies new risks, and ensures the effectiveness of risk plans at reducing risk to the project. It occurs throughout the project. Answers A and B are incorrect because risk monitoring should occur throughout the project, not just at the start or end of a project.

A41:

Answer C is correct. The PV, or planned value, is the originally scheduled project cost, or baseline. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the performance measurement baseline.

A42:

Answer A is correct. A trend analysis is forecasting future outcomes (or in this case, errors) based on historical results. The PMBOK strongly supports using historical data. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not used to monitor the number of errors.

A43:

Answer B is correct. A Pareto diagram, as stated by the PMBOK, is a histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results are generated by each identified cause. The errors that are causing the largest number of defects should be fixed first. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the ordering of defects or errors to guide the corrective action in the project.

A44:

Answer A is correct. The project plan should continually be updated to reflect modifications to the project. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not documents that would be used to reflect project modifications.

A45:

Answer B is correct. If there are pending change requests that might have a positive or negative effect on the budget, these are important documents to review and consider.

A46:

Answer D is the best answer. Special causes are linked to unusual events, whereas random causes are more normal process variations. It is important to understand these terms so that unusual event causes can be identified, controlled, and corrected. Answer A could be correct but is not the best answer. Answer B is incorrect because statistical sampling is just part of the statistical quality control aspect of a project. Answer C is incorrect because attribute sampling is just one aspect of statistical quality control.

A47:

Answer A is correct. The PMBOK states that the cost change control system includes the documentation, tracking systems, and approval levels required for a change. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the procedures by which the cost baseline can be altered, which is an important aspect of the cost change control system.

A48:

Answer C is correct. This is a PMBOK definition of a project scope change control system. Answer A is incorrect because the system is not part of the project plan, although it may be identified in this document. Answer B is incorrect because the scope control system is not part of the work breakdown structure.

A49:

Answer A is correct. Such a checklist is a tool and technique for risk identification as described in the PMBOK. It can be formulated by using lessons learned from previous projects and other historical information. Answer B is incorrect because the work breakdown structure is more important at the beginning of the project, rather than the end of the project. Answers C and D are incorrect because the original contract and vendor audits are generally not associated with lessons learned.

A50:

Answer D is correct. The PMBOK states that the purpose of risk monitoring is to determine whether risk responses have been implemented as planned, project assumptions are still valid, and a risk trigger has occurred.

A51:

Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and C are all inputs to risk monitoring and control. The other inputs are scope changes and additional risk identification and analysis.

A52:

Answer B is correct. Periodic project risk reviews are a tool and technique for risk monitoring and control. The others that are defined in the PMBOK are project risk response audits, EVA, technical performance measurement, and additional risk response planning. Answer A is incorrect because project risk reviews are not an output of risk monitoring and control. Answer C is incorrect because project risk reviews are not inputs to risk monitoring and control. Answer D is incorrect because periodic project risk reviews are necessary for the success of a project.

A53:

Answer C is correct. The project schedule is an input to schedule control. The other inputs are performance reports, change requests, and the schedule management plan. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because the project schedule is not an input to either activity definition, activity sequencing, or activity duration estimating.

A54:

Answer A is correct. The PMBOK states that the three outputs of schedule control are schedule updates, corrective action, and lessons learned. Therefore, Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not completely correct answers.

A55:

Answer C is correct. The PMBOK defines a risk database as a repository that provides for collection, maintenance, and analysis of data gathered and used in the risk management processes. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not the correct definition according to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK).

A56:

Answer B is correct. The PMBOK states that rework is an output of the quality control process. Although rework must be minimized, it is sometimes required to bring a nonconforming item into compliance. Answers A and C are incorrect because rework is sometimes unavoidable and must be accepted. Answer D is incorrect because rework is not always required to meet quality control measures.

A57:

Answer A is correct. Inspections are performed during a project to certify that results are conforming to requirements. They may also be called walkthroughs, audits, or reviews. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not inspections that are completed during a project.

A58:

Answer D is correct. An outside party conducts a risk audit, whereas the project team conducts a risk review. Risk reviews should be scheduled regularly. Answer A is incorrect because there are significant differences between risk audits and risk reviews. Answer B is incorrect because risk audits can be done on projects regardless of their size. Answer C is incorrect because a project team does not generally conduct a risk audit; however, it frequently performs the risk review.

A59:

Answer A is correct. Scope verification differs from quality control in that scope verification is concerned with the acceptance, and not the correctness, of the work results. Both scope verification and quality control are necessary in a successful project. Answer B is incorrect because scope verification is concerned with the correctness of the work results. Answer C is incorrect because scope verification is required for a project. Answers C and D are incorrect because Answer A is the only correct answer to this question.

A60:

Answer D is correct. Your first step is to document the change, the reasons for the change, and its effect on the project in a change request. Answer A is incorrect because a government regulation will likely not be changed to accommodate your project. Answers B and C are incorrect because you do not necessarily need to prepare a new project plan due to a new government regulation.

A61:

Answer B is correct. The change control board's responsibilities should be agreed upon by the project stakeholders. A change control board is usually necessary to approve or reject change requests. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because the change control board's main focus is to approve or reject change requests and not changes to the project plan, work breakdown structure, or selection of project team resources.

A62:

Answer C is correct. The schedule performance index (SPI) is an index utilized to show how much of the originally scheduled work has been accomplished at a specific point in time. Answer A is incorrect because SPI is not associated with a project being over budget. Answer B is incorrect because SPI does not gauge if the project is not as valuable as originally estimated.

A63:

Answer C is correct. Workarounds are used when necessary in risk monitoring and control. Answer A is the PMBOK's definition of reserve. Answer B is the PMBOK's definition of fast tracking.

A64:

Answer D is correct. A budget update is necessary when there is a change to an approved cost baseline. Such an update is usually made in response to an approved project scope change. Answer A is incorrect because you can only request more funds if the customer has approved a change control document to approve the additional costs. Answer B is incorrect because you should only change the project plan if it is affected by the budget and has gone through appropriate approval processes. Answer C is incorrect because the budget overrun will not have an impact upon the work breakdown structure (WBS).

A65:

Answer A is correct. Project management software and variance analysis are tools and techniques used in schedule control. Other tools and techniques utilized in schedule control are a schedule change control system, performance measurement, and additional planning. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because Project Management software and variance analysis are not tools and techniques that are used in risk response planning, administrative closure, or quality control.



PMP Practice Questions Exam Cram 2
PMP Practice Questions Exam Cram 2
ISBN: 0789732564
EAN: 2147483647
Year: 2006
Pages: 46
Authors: David Francis

Similar book on Amazon

Flylib.com © 2008-2017.
If you may any questions please contact us: flylib@qtcs.net