Section 3.4. Exam 70-290 Practice Questions


3.4. Exam 70-290 Practice Questions

  1. Which of the following are valid modes for MMC?

    1. Edit

    2. Author

    3. Normal

    4. User

    Answers B and D are correct. Author mode allows you to create and make changes to consoles. User mode allows you to access consoles and use their features.

  2. What is the default TCP port for remote administration using Remote Desktop for Administration?

    1. Port 80

    2. Port 8080

    3. Port 369

    4. Port 3389

    Answer D is correct. If the computer is running a firewall, TCP port 3389 must be opened to allow remote access.

  3. How many simultaneous connections are possible using Terminal Services in Remote Desktop for Administration mode?

    1. 2 concurrent

    2. 2 but not simultaneously

    3. 4 concurrent

    4. 4 but not simultaneously

    Answer A is correct. Each server configured with Remote Desktop for Administration can have up to two concurrent connections.

  4. Sarah's computer is running Windows Server 2003. Sarah, a junior administrator, frequently has difficulty performing administration tasks. Ed, as the administrator spends several hours a week helping to resolve Sarah's issues. Rather than going to Sarah's workspace to resolve problems, Ed should:

    1. Enable Remote Desktop for Administration on Sarah's computer.

    2. Enable Remote Assistance on Sarah's computer.

    3. Show Sarah how to make remote assistance requests.

    4. Use Remote Assistance to help troubleshoot.

    5. Enable Remote Desktop for Administration on his computer.

    Answers B, C, and D are correct. Remote Assistance allows a user to send an invitation to a more experienced user or administrator asking for troubleshooting help with a computer problem. The helper accepting the request can view the user's desktop, transfer files, and chat with the user needing help through a single interface.

  5. Which of the following unsigned driver options are available in Windows Server 2003?

    1. PnP

    2. Non-PnP

    3. Ignore

    4. Warn

    5. Prompt

    6. Block

    Answers C, D, and F are correct. Ignore allows all device drivers to be installed without having to see and respond to a warning prompt. Warn, the default, prompts with a warning message prior to installing a hardware device with an unsigned driver. Block prevents installation of unsigned drivers.

  6. Todd is a system administrator. He has completed the installation of a new server running Windows Server 2003. When he logged on, the server's display mode was 640 x 480. He couldn't configure the server to display at a clearer, larger display mode, so he updated the video drivers. He rebooted the server after installing the drivers and logged on successfully. However, he is unable to manage the server because the display is completely black. What is the easiest and faster way to resolve this problem?

    1. Restart the server and use the Last Known Good Configuration. Roll back the video driver to the previous version.

    2. Restart the server and use Safe Mode. Rollback the video driver to the previous version.

    3. Create a new logon user and then log on as this user.

    4. Log on locally instead of onto the domain, and then fix the problem.

    Answer B is correct. If you had to restart the operating system after installing a driver and you successfully log on before a problem occurs, which could happen with an updated video driver, you will not be able to use the Last Known Good Configuration. The Last Known Good Configuration is overwritten when you successfully log on. In this case, you may need to start the computer in Safe Mode.

  7. Mary is a system administrator. One of the organization's servers has just been upgraded from Windows NT to Windows Server 2003. After the upgrade, one of the SCSI adapters on the computer fails to operate and displays a warning. According to the documentation, the adapter is non-Plug-and-play and must be manually configured to use the appropriate resources. How do you manually configure the SCSI adapter?

    1. View the driver details. If the driver is not digitally signed, you must reinstall it.

    2. Access the device's Properties dialog box. Update the driver so that it uses PnP.

    3. Uninstall the device because you can't manually configure devices.

    4. Access the device's Properties dialog box. On the Resources tab, configure the manual settings.

    Answer D is correct. If a device can be manually configured through Windows, you'll be able to clear Use Automatic Settings and then click Change Setting to define new resource settings. If you manually assign resources, both the device and the resource will be unavailable for automatic configuration. You'll need to make sure the settings don't conflict with other devices.

  8. Which of the following partition styles and disk types are supported by Windows Server 2003?

    1. MBR basic disks

    2. GPT dynamic disks

    3. MBR and GPT basic disks

    4. MBR and GPT dynamic disks

    Answers C and D are correct. Windows Server 2003 supports MBR and GPT partition styles, and either style can use the basic or dynamic disk type. GPT partitions are used on Itanium based 64-bit versions of Windows Server 2003.

  9. Which of the following types of disks can be formatted as dynamic disks?

    1. Hard disks on desktop PCs.

    2. Hard disks on laptops.

    3. Hard disks on tablet PCs.

    4. Removable media disk drives.

    5. FireWire/USB-connected disks.

    Answer A is correct. Dynamic disks are not supported for removable media, on portable computers, such as laptops and tablet PCs, or with disks connected via FireWire/USB.

  10. Which of the following disk configurations would be considered the boot volume on Windows Server 2003?

    1. Volume C:, a basic disk containing the boot files ntldr, ntdetect.com, and boot.ini (with the operating system files on a different volume).

    2. Volume D:, a dynamic disk where the operating system files are located.

    3. Volume C:, a basic disk where the operating system files are located.

    4. Volume C:, a basic disk containing the boot files ntldr, ntdetect.com, and boot.ini, and where the operating system files are located.

    Answers B, C, and D are correct. The boot volume contains the operating system and operating system-related files. The system volume contains the hardware-specific files needed to load Windows. The boot and system volume can be the same volume.

  11. Which of the following are true statements regarding basic disks?

    1. Basic disks can have up to four primary partitions or up to three primary partitions and one extended partition.

    2. Basic disks can have an unlimited number of simple volumes.

    3. On a basic disk, each primary partition is represented with one logical volume.

    4. On a basic disk, each extended partition is represented by one or more logical drives.

    5. Basic disks can have no more than six extended logical volumes.

    Answers A, C, and D are correct. With MBR disk partitions on basic disks, logical volumes are represented using primary partitions and extended partitions containing logical drives. A basic disk can have up to four primary partitions or up to three primary partitions and one extended partition. Each primary partition is represented with one logical volume. Each extended partition is represented by one or more logical drives. A logical drive is a logical volume that is used to represent all of or part of an extended partition.

  12. Which RAID configurations can be used with Windows Server 2003?

    1. RAID-0

    2. RAID-1

    3. RAID-5

    4. RAID-0+1

    5. RAID-10

    Answers, A, B, C, D, and E are correct. Windows Server 2003 can be used with hardware and software RAID. While software RAID is limited to RAID-0, RAID-1, and RAID-5, hardware RAID levels are limited only by the hardware RAID controller.

  13. Which of the following dynamic volume types can be extended?

    1. Simple volume

    2. Spanned volume

    3. Striped volumes

    4. Mirrored volumes

    5. Striped with parity volumes

    Answers A and B are correct. You can extend simple volumes to unallocated space on the disk on which they were created. You can extend spanned volumes to unallocated space on any disk as necessary to provide additional storage capacity. You cannot extend striped, mirrored, or striped with parity volumes.

  14. Which of the following techniques can be used to create and format a 60 GB volume?

    1. Use Disk Management to create and format the volume using FAT32 or NTFS.

    2. Use DiskPart to create the volume and use FORMAT to format the volume using FAT32 or NTFS.

    3. Use Disk Management to create the volume and format the volume as FAT32 using DiskPart.

    4. Use Disk Management to create the volume and format the volume as NTFS using DiskPart.

    5. Use Disk Management to create and format the volume using NTFS.

    Answer E is correct. The volume can be created only using NTFS. Although FAT32 has maximum volume size of 2TB, Disk Management and DiskPart limit this to 32 GB. Further, DiskPart cannot be used for formatting volumes. You can use Disk Management or FORMAT to format volumes.

  15. How can volumes be mounted on Windows Server 2003 using Disk Management or DiskPart?

    1. Volumes can be mounted to a drive letter.

    2. Volumes can be mounted to any NTFS folder.

    3. Volumes can be mounted to any empty NTFS folder.

    4. Volumes cannot be mounted using Diskpart.

    Answers A and C are correct. Volumes can be mounted to a drive letter or an empty NTFS folder. Volumes cannot be mounted to non-empty NTFS folders. Both Disk Management and DiskPart can be used to mount volumes.

  16. Tom is a system administrator. He has installed a new server running Windows Server 2003. The server's C: drive has the operating system files and the files need to boot the system. He wants the C: drive to be fault tolerant. Which of the following can Tom use to configure C: to be fault tolerant?

    1. Use Windows Server 2003 to implement RAID-1 (disk mirroring) on C:.

    2. Use Windows Server 2003 to implement RAID-5 (disk striping with parity) on C:.

    3. Configure two hard disk controllers and use Windows Server 2003 to implement disk duplexing on C:.

    4. Use Windows Server 2003 to implement RAID-0 (disk striping) on C:.

    Answers A and C are correct. A is correct because boot and system volumes can be mirrored. B is incorrect because system volumes cannot use RAID-5. C is correct because boot and system volumes can be duplexed; disk duplexing is a RAID-1 configuration with two hard disk controllers. D is incorrect because RAID-0 is not fault tolerant.

  17. Which of the following are true regarding names assigned to users, groups, and computers in workgroups under Windows Server 2003?

    1. Each computer must have a unique name.

    2. User names must be unique, but only on a per-machine basis

    3. User names must be unique throughout the workgroup.

    4. Group names must be unique, but only on a per-machine basis.

    5. Group names must be unique throughout the workgroup.

    Answers A, B, and D are correct. In a workgroup, each computer must have a unique name, and other names are maintained on a per-machine basis. This means each local user and local group defined on a computer must be unique.

  18. Which of the following are true regarding names assigned to users, groups, and computers in Active Directory domain under Windows Server 2003?

    1. User, computer, and group names do not have to be unique and can be repeated.

    2. User, computer, and group names can contain no more than 64 characters and only 32 characters for the display name.

    3. User, computer, and group names must have a unique 64-character pre-Windows 2000 name.

    4. User, computer, and group names are permitted to contain spaces, periods, dashes, and underscores.

    Answer D is correct. In Active Directory, all user, computer, and group names must be unique on a per-domain basis. Names can have up to 256 characters; display names can have up to 64 characters. By default, the pre-Windows 2000 name is the first 20 characters of the standard name. User, computer, and group names are permitted to contain spaces, periods, dashes, and underscores, but cannot contain the following special characters: " / \ [ ] ; | = , + * ? < >.

  19. Which of the following methods can be used to create computer accounts in an Active Directory domain under Windows Server 2003?

    1. Authenticated users can join up to 10 computers to the domain and Active Directory will create necessary computer automatically.

    2. Only administrators can join computers to the domain. When this is done, Active Directory will create necessary computer automatically.

    3. Administrators can prestage a computer account using Active Directory Users And Computers. Only Domain Admins can then join the computer to the domain unless the permission is delegated.

    4. Administrators can prestage a computer account using DSADD COMPUTER. Any user can then join the computer to the domain.

    Answers A and C are correct. Authenticated users can join up to 10 computers to the domain and Active Directory will create necessary computer objects for these computers automatically. Authenticated users must also have local administrator permissions on the local computer. With prestaging of accounts, members of the Domain Admins group only will be able to join this computer to the domain by default. If you want to delegate this permission to a specific user or group, click Change and then select the user or group using the dialog box provides.

  20. Which of the following types of groups can be created by administrators in an Active Directory domain under Windows Server 2003?

    1. Implicit groups

    2. Domain local groups

    3. Global groups

    4. Universal groups

    5. Built-in groups

    Answers B, C, and D are correct. In an Active Directory domain, administrators can create domain local, global, and universal groups. Built-in groups are created when you install Windows Server 2003 and configure the domain. Implicit built-in groups are another special type of group. Membership in implicit groups is implied, and implicit groups cannot be created by administrators.

  21. Which of the following can be members of a universal group when the domain functional level is set to Windows Server 2003?

    1. Users or computer accounts from the same domain only.

    2. Users or computer accounts from any domain.

    3. Domain local groups from the same domain only.

    4. Domain local groups from any domain.

    5. Global and universal groups from any domain.

    6. Global and universal groups from the same domain only.

    Answers B and E are correct. In Windows Server 2003 domain functional mode, universal groups can contains accounts from any domain. They can also contain global and universal groups from any domain. They cannot, however, contain domain local groups.

  22. Joe is a system administrator at a university. He's been tasked with setting up a computer lab for the science department. Although each student who logs on to a computer in the lab will have his or her own account in the lab domain, the manager of the science department doesn't want students to be able to make permanent changes to the desktop environment settings. Profiles should not be stored on individual computers. Instead, they should be stored on the main server. How should Joe configure the student accounts in the lab domain?

    1. Use a local profile for each student.

    2. Use a roaming profile for each student.

    3. Use a mandatory local profile for each student.

    4. Use a mandatory roaming profile for each student.

    Answer D is correct. When a user has a roaming profile, the profile is stored on a server. If the name of the profile is changed to Ntuser.man, the user is prevented from making permanent changes to his or her settings.

  23. Which of the following are valid passwords when the "Passwords must meet complexity requirements" policy is enabled in an Active Directory domain under Windows Server 2003?

    1. Ilove2gotoSchool

    2. !Random56

    3. d4$#@23

    4. gottarunfaster

    Answer B and C are correct. The policy determines whether the password must meet specific complexity requirements. If the policy is defined, a password cannot contain the user account name, must contain at least six characters, and must have characters that have uppercase letters, lowercase letters, Arabic numerals, and non-alphanumeric characters.

  24. How can you determine whether a user's account is disabled?

    1. Use Active Directory Users And Computers to delete the account.

    2. Use Active Directory Users And Computers; if the account shows a red warning icon it has been disabled.

    3. Type dsmod user UserDN -disabled at a command prompt.

    4. Type dsquery user UserDN -disabled at a command prompt.

    Answers B and D are correct. Answer A is incorrect because you don't have to delete an account to determine if it is disabled. Answer B is correct because Active Directory Users And Computers shows disabled accounts with a red warning icon next to the account name. Answer C is incorrect because you use DSMOD USER to modify user accounts. Answer D is correct because you can determine whether an account has been disabled by typing dsquery user UserDN -disabled at a command prompt.

  25. Joe is a system administrator at a university. He's been tasked with setting up a computer lab for the science department. He's been asked to set up a shared folder that allows students to save and manage their files. Lab administrators should have full access to manage the share however necessary. Student accounts are members of the UStudents group. Lab administrators are members of the LabAdmins group. How should Joe configure the shared folder?

    1. Configure the share so UStudents have Change permission and LabAdmins have Full Control permission.

    2. Configure the share so UStudents have Change permission and LabAdmins have Change permission.

    3. Configure the share so UStudents have Full Control permission and LabAdmins have Change permission.

    4. Configure the share so UStudents have Read permission and LabAdmins have Change permission.

    Answer A is correct. Full Control permission grants both Read and Change permission, and also allows a user to change file and folder permissions and take ownership of files and folders. Change allows a user to view files and folders, create files and subfolders, modify files, change attributes on files and subfolders, and delete files and subfolders.

  26. Joe is a system administrator at a university. He set up a share in the computer lab but neither students nor lab administrators can access it. Joe checked the share permissions, which are configured properly. Students and lab administrators see an "Access is denied" message when they try to access the share. Joe has no problem accessing the share. What should Joe do to resolve the problem?

    1. Nothing; the users must be mapping to the share improperly.

    2. Instruct the users on the proper way to connect to the share.

    3. Check and modify as necessary the NTFS permissions on the folder being shared.

    4. Change the share permissions so that everyone has Full Control.

    Answer C is correct. Share permissions determine the maximum allowed access level. NTFS permissions further restrict the access. If share permissions are correct and users see an "Access is denied" message, the NTFS permissions should be checked.

  27. Joe is a system administrator at a university. In the computer lab, Joe believes someone hacked the main file server and then deleted the C$ and D$ administrative shares. What is the best way to resolve the problem?

    1. Reinstalling the file server is the only way to resolve the file server.

    2. Restart the server.

    3. Restore the file server from backup.

    4. Remove access to the security event logs.

    Answer B is correct. The special shares are created each time the operating system is started. Restarting the server will ensure the deleted shares are restored.

  28. Which of the following are true about NTFS permissions?

    1. Basic permissions provide the most granular control for fine-tuning access.

    2. Special permissions provide the most granular control for fine-tuning access.

    3. Basic permissions represent a grouping of special permissions.

    4. Special permissions represent a grouping of basic permissions.

    Answers B and C are correct. Basic permissions represent a grouping of special permissions that together allow six commonly configured levels of access: Read, Read & Execute, Write, Modify, or Full Control. The special or advanced permissions provide granular control for when you need to fine-tune access permissions.

  29. Which of the following are true when you view effective NTFS permissions for a user or group?

    1. Basic permissions are displayed.

    2. Directly assigned permissions are included and displayed.

    3. Permissions inherited due to group membership are included and displayed.

    4. Permissions inherited from parent folders aren't included or displayed.

    5. Share permissions are not included or displayed.

    Answers B, C, and E are correct. Effective permissions are listed using special permissions (not basic permissions). The Effective Permissions tab allows you to determine the collective set of permissions that apply based on directly assigned permissions, permissions inherited due to group membership, and permissions inherited from parent folders. Effective Permissions apply only to folder and file permissions. Share permissions are not included. You cannot determine effective permissions for implicit groups or special identities.

  30. Which of the following techniques can be used to change the ownership of an NTFS folder or file?

    1. Any user who has the Restore Files And Directories user right can take ownership.

    2. Members of the Administrators group can take ownership.

    3. Any user assigned the Take Ownership permission can take ownership.

    4. Authenticated users can grant any user the Take Ownership permission.

    Answers A, B, and C are correct. Users who have the right to Restore Files And Directories, such as a member of the Backup Operators group, can take ownership. Members of the Administrators group can take ownership. Users or groups assigned with the Take Ownership permission can take ownership. Current owners can grant another user the Take Ownership permission.

  31. Sarah is configuring NTFS permissions and has been told that members of the TempUsers group should not have access to the C:\Userdata\Docs folder. Sarah checked the permissions on the Docs folder and found the TempUsers group is getting access to the C:\Userdata\Docs folder through permissions inherited from C:\Userdata. What is the best way to configure permissions so the TempUsers group cannot access the C:\Userdata\Docs folder?

    1. Stop inheriting permissions by clearing Allow Inheritable Permissions From The Parent To Propagate To This Object on the Permissions tab of the C:\Userdata folder.

    2. Stop inheriting permissions by clearing Allow Inheritable Permissions From The Parent To Propagate To This Object on the Permissions tab of the C:\Userdata\Docs folder.

    3. Remove the TempUsers group's permissions on the C:\Userdata folder.

    4. Override the inherited permissions on the C:\Userdata folder\Docs folder by explicitly denying the TempUsers group's permissions.

    Answer D is correct. You can override inherited permissions by selecting the opposite permission and thereby explicitly denying the permission. You don't want to stop inheriting permissions because that could affect permissions for all users and groups. You don't want to remove TempUsers group's permissions on the C:\Userdata folder because the group members needs to access other folders under this folder.

  32. What should you do to allow a user to log on to a terminal server?

    1. Create a local machine account for the user on the terminal server.

    2. Create a domain account for the user and configure the user's home profile so it is stored on the terminal server.

    3. Add the user to the Remote Desktop Users group in the appropriate domain.

    4. Grant the user the Logon As A Batch Job user right on the terminal server.

    Answer C is correct. In a standard configuration of terminal server, you can add users or group to the Remote Desktop Users group to allow users to log on to a terminal server.

  33. Tom is an administrator for a large enterprise. The organization has been using terminal servers for several months. Yesterday, one of the administrators configured the terminal servers so that authentication is required. The Remote Desktop Connection client settings were updated throughout the organization so that authentication is used. The help desk has received reports that some users can no longer connect to the terminal servers, while other users are fine. Tom and other help desk staff can connect to the terminal server without problems. What is the best way to resolve the problem while ensuring identity can be confirmed when accessing the terminal server?

    1. Nothing; everyone else is fine so the terminal server is working correctly.

    2. Remove the authentication requirement on the server.

    3. Remove the authentication requirement on both the clients and servers.

    4. Make sure all users are logging on using the proper domain, user account and password.

    5. Make sure all users are connecting using the appropriate server name.

    Answer E is correct. With authentication, the user may need to type the fully qualified domain name for the terminal server instead of the computer name.

  34. Nathan is a developer. He is having problem with an application and cannot determine why authentication and logon are failing. The machine he's working with has auditing configured, but he cannot access the security logs. What needs to be done to allow Nathan to access the security logs?

    1. Only administrators can access security logs. Nathan should be made an administrator on the computer.

    2. Nathan is looking in the wrong place. Auditing events are recorded in the system logs.

    3. Nathan should be granted the Manage Auditing and the Security Log user right on the computer.

    4. Nathan should be granted the Bypass Traverse Checking user right on the computer.

    Answer C is correct. Security logs are accessible only to administrators by default. Others who need access must be granted the Manage Auditing and the Security Log user right.

  35. Which of the following are not one of the standard types of events?

    1. Normal

    2. Warning

    3. Error

    4. Success Audit

    5. Failure Audit

    Answer A is correct. Normal is not one of the standard types of events. The standard event types are: Information, Warning, Error, Success Audit, and Failure Audit.

  36. What tool should you use if you suspect an application is not responding?

    1. Computer Management

    2. Task Manager

    3. Performance

    4. System Monitor

    5. Event Viewer

    Answer B is correct. The Task Manager Application's tab displays the status of running applications and can be used to stop applications that aren't responding.

  37. Which of the following performance metrics do you use when specifying resources to monitor in System Monitor?

    1. Objects

    2. Counters

    3. Processes

    4. Threads

    5. Instances

    Answers A, B, and E are correct. In System Monitor, the standard performance metrics are objects, counters, and object instances.

  38. What performance metric should you track to determine whether a disk is keeping up with I/O requests?

    1. Physical Disk\CurrentDisk Queue Length

    2. PhysicalDisk\%Disk Time

    3. LogicalDisk\%Free Space

    4. Logical Disk\Avg. DiskRead Queue Length

    Answer A is correct. Physical Disk\Avg. DiskWrite Queue Length, Physical Disk\Avg. DiskRead Queue Length, and Physical Disk\CurrentDisk Queue Length track disk-queuing activity. If there are multiple requests in any queue waiting to be processed, the disk isn't performing as fast as is necessary to keep up with I/O requests.

  39. Which of the following statements are not true regarding disk quotas?

    1. Disk quotas apply only to NTFS volumes.

    2. A quota warning level can be exceeded.

    3. A quota limit level cannot be exceeded.

    4. The built-in Administrators group is not affected by quota limits.

    Answer C is correct. A quota limit sets a specific limit on the amount of space that can be used. Users can be prevented from exceeding a quota limit, but only if the quota limit is enforced.

  40. Sarah is a system administrator. She has moved three previously shared printers to new locations on the network and assigned each a new IP address. These printers are all hosted by a single print server. What should Sarah do to allow the printers to be used for printing?

    1. Modify the user profile of each user so the correct IP address is used for the printers.

    2. Configure user logon scripts to map to the printer share names.

    3. Access the Advanced tab of the Print Server Properties dialog box and configure the related TCP/IP ports.

    4. Access the Advanced tab of each printer's Properties dialog box and configure the related TCP/IP port.

    Answers C and D are correct. The Ports tab of the each printer's Properties dialog box can be used to change port configurations. Although you also can configure ports using the Ports tab of the Print Server Properties dialog box, you cannot configure ports on the Advanced tab.

  41. How do you change the location of the print spooling folder?

    1. Access the Advanced tab of the Print Server Properties dialog box and enter the new folder location.

    2. Access the Advanced tab of each printer's Properties dialog box and enter the new folder location.

    3. Edit the Spool Folder policy setting.

    4. Edit the Registry so CurrSpoolFold under HKLM has the correct folder location.

    Answer A is correct. You can change the location of the spooling folder using the Advanced tab of the Print Server Properties dialog box. It is not possible to specify different spool folders for different folders. All printers share the same spool folder.

  42. What authentication mode should you use when configuring IIS if you want users to be able to secure access and allow users to use their domain logon to access internal web servers?

    1. Anonymous authentication

    2. Basic authentication

    3. Digest authentication

    4. Integrated Windows Authentication

    5. .NET Passport Authentication

    Answer D is correct. Integrated Windows Authentication uses standard Windows security to validate a user's identity. Users are not prompted for logon information. Instead, the Windows logon credentials are related to the server in an encrypted format that does not require the use of SSL. Only Internet Explorer browsers support this authentication mode.

  43. How should you configure a server's content and application permissions so users can view files, execute scripts, but have no other permissions?

    1. Configure Script Source Access and Scripts Only permissions

    2. Configure Read, Script Source Access and Scripts Only permissions

    3. Configure Read and Scripts Only permissions

    4. Configure Read, Write, and Scripts Only permissions

    Answer C is correct. Read permission allows web users to read files in the folder. Scripts Only permission allows scripts to run when accessed via IIS.

  44. Amy is a systems administrator. She's configuring Automatic Updates so that all computers within the domain automatically install updates obtained from a designated internal update server. Amy installed and configured Windows Software Update Services. When she configured products to install, and synchronized the update server, updates were downloaded and she approved them for install. To complete the process, she logged on to each computer and configured Automatic Updates so updates were downloaded and installed automatically every day. However, when she checked the computers a few days later, she found no updates had been downloaded or installed. What should Amy do to correct the problem?

    1. Check the proxy settings and make sure the update server is getting current updates.

    2. Use the Configure Automatic Updates policy rather than the Control Panel.

    3. Use policy to specify the intranet Microsoft update service location.

    4. Restart the client computers.

    5. Reinstall the Windows Software Update Services.

    Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because Amy was able to synchronize the update server and approved updates; the update server configuration is working properly. Answer B is correct because client computers can be configured to use Automatic Updates in policy or in Control Panel. Policy settings do take precedence, but either method works. Answers D and E are incorrect because restarting computers and reinstalling WSUS won't resolve the problem.

  45. Which of the following are the licensing options permitted by Microsoft?

    1. Per server

    2. Per user or device

    3. Per workgroup

    4. Switching from per user or device to per server

    5. Switching from per server to per user or device

    Answers A, B, and E are correct. Microsoft allows per-server, per-user or device, or per-processor licensing. You can make a one-time only switch from per-server licensing to per-user or device licensing. You cannot switch from per-user or device licensing to per-server licensing.

  46. Sal is a member of the Backup Operators group and has been asked to recover a server that failed Thursday evening. Sal examined the backups and discovered the last full (normal) backup was made on Sunday. Although daily differential backups were made Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, Thursday's differential backup was not made. What is the most efficient way for Sal to recover the server?

    1. Restore the last full (normal) backup.

    2. Restore the last full (normal) backup and the Differential backup from Wednesday.

    3. Restore the last full (normal) backup and the dailies from Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday.

    4. Restore the last full (normal) backup and the dailies from Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday. Restore Thursday's daily from the previous week.

    Answer B is correct. Differential backups contain changes since the last full backup. If a system fails on a Thursday before daily Differential backup and the last full (normal) backup was the previous Sunday, you would recover the system by applying the last full (normal) backup, and the last differential backup (Wednesday's differential backup).

  47. How can you determine whether scheduled backups completed successfully?

    1. Access the Backup Progress dialog box for the backup and click the Report button.

    2. Check the system event log for success events.

    3. Open the Backup utility and click Tools Report.

    4. Report, and then double-clicking the report you want to review.

      1. Make the user a member of the Server Operators group.

      2. Make the user a member of the Backup Operators group.

      3. Grant the user the Backup Files And Directories user rights.

      4. Grant the user the Backup Files And Directories user rights and the Restore Files And Directories user rights.

      Answers B and D are correct. On stand-alone and member servers, members of the Backup Operators and Administrators group are granted both rights. On Domain Controllers, members of the Backup Operators, Server Operators, and Administrators group are granted both rights. Other than this, only those granted the user rights Backup Files And Directories and Restore Files And Directories can back up and restore files.




MCSE Core Required Exams in a Nutshell
MCSE Core Required Exams in a Nutshell: The required 70: 290, 291, 293 and 294 Exams (In a Nutshell (OReilly))
ISBN: 0596102283
EAN: 2147483647
Year: 2006
Pages: 95

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