Assessment Test

1.	Transparent bridging uses which protocol to stop network loops on layer 2 switched networks? IP routing STP VSTP UplinkFast Bridging
2.	Choose the three components that make MLS implementation possible. MLS-CP MLSP MLS-SE MLS-RP
3.	Why would you configure VTP version 2 on your network? (Choose all that apply.) You need to support Token Ring VLANs. You want to correct TLV errors. You want to forward VTP domain messages without the switches checking the version. You have all Cisco switches.
4.	An interface has been configured to use PIM sparse-dense mode. Which of the following criteria force the interface to operate in dense mode? (Choose all that apply.) DVMRP neighbors that are directly connected Non-pruned PIM neighbors Join request received by a host Interface connected to a Catalyst 4000 series switch
5.	Which of the following is the proper syntax for enabling IP multicast on a router? multicast ip routing ip-multicast routing ip multicast-routing ip mroute cache
6.	Which of the following are true regarding the blocking state of an STP switch port? (Choose all that apply.) Blocking ports do not forward any frames. Blocking ports listen for BPDUs. Blocking ports forward all frames. Blocking ports do not listen for BPDUs.
7.	Choose the correct definition of an XTAG. A value assigned to each packet to assign it to an MLS flow A value assigned by the router to each MLS-SE in the layer 2 network A value assigned by each MLS-SE for each MLS-RP in the layer 2 network A value assigned by the NFFC or PFC to identify each flow
8.	What Cisco Catalyst switches provide distribution layer functions? (Choose all that apply.) 2950 3550 4000 6000 8500
9.	What is the difference between a bridge and a layer 2 switch? (Choose all that apply.) Switches are software based. Bridges are hardware based. Switches are hardware based. Bridges are software based.
10.	What would you type at a 2950 console prompt to see the transmit and receive statistics of VTP? show vtp counters show vtp status show vtp domain show interface e0/9
11.	If you wanted to configure VLAN 6 on an internal route processor with an IP address of 10.1.1.1/24, which of the following commands would you use? set vlan6 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 configure terminal, vlan6 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 configure terminal, interface vlan 6, ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 set interface vlan6, ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
12.	Which of the following is the correct multicast MAC address if it is mapped from the multicast IP address 224.127.45.254? 01-00-5e-7f-2d-fe 01-00-5e-7e-2d-fe 00-00-e0-7f-2d-fe 01-00-e0-7f-2d-fe
13.	Which of the following describes local VLAN services? Users do not cross layer 3 devices, and the network services are in the same broadcast domain as the users. This type of traffic never crosses the backbone. Users cross the backbone to log in to servers for file and print services. Users would have to cross a layer 3 device to communicate with the network services, but they might not have to cross the backbone. Layer 3 switches or routers are required in this scenario because the services must be close to the core and would probably be based in their own subnet.
14.	What is the command used to set the enable password to terry on a 2950 switch? enable secret terry set password terry enable password terry set password enable terry
15.	Which of the following protocols is used to determine the locations of data loops and the election of a root bridge? STP VSTP BPDU BackboneFast
16.	What is the syntax for configuring a router to be an RP Mapping Agent? ip multicast mapping-agent scope ip pim send-rp-discovery scope ip rp-mapping-agent scope ip auto-rp mapping-agent scope
17.	Which of the following is an IEEE standard for frame tagging? ISL 802.3z 802.1Q 802.3u
18.	How do you set the enable mode password to terry on a 4000 series switch? set sco password terry set user password terry set password terry set enablepass set enable password terry
19.	Which of the following is true? The 3550 uses CEF for layer 3 switching. The 3550 requires an external route processor to achieve layer 3 switching. The 3550 does not perform layer 3 switching without enhanced software. The 3550 integrates with the 2600 router to achieve layer 3 switching.
20.	Which version of IGMP is the Cisco proprietary version? IGMPv1 IGMPv2 CGMP None
21.	If you wanted to set a default route on a 4000 series switch, which of the following commands would you use? route add 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 set route default 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 set route default 172.16.1.1 set route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
22.	Which of the following is a type of access policy that you can apply at the core layer? Port security Access lists High reliability Physical security
23.	Which of the following defines remote VLAN services? Users do not cross layer 3 devices, and the network services are in the same broadcast domain as the users. This type of traffic never crosses the backbone. Users cross layer 2 devices only to find the network file and print services needed to perform their job function. Users would have to cross a layer 3 device to communicate with the network services, but they might not have to cross the backbone. Layer 3 switches or routers are required in this scenario because the services must be close to the core and would probably be based in their own subnet.
24.	If you want to clear the VTP prune eligibility from all VLANs except VLAN 2, what command would you type in on a set-based switch? delete pruneeligible 3, 4, 5,and so on delete vtp pruneeligible 1, 3-1005 clear vtp pruneeligible 3-1005 clear vtp pruneeligible 1, 3-1005
25.	Which of the following are valid QoS mechanisms? (Choose all that apply.) Differentiated services First in, first out Integrated services Best efforts
26.	When must you run IGMPv1? When using Auto-RP When running DVMRP tunnels When hosts use IGMPv1 You never have to use IGMPv1.
27.	If you wanted to have a 4000 switch supervisor module in a VLAN other than the default of VLAN 1, what should you type? set interface slo 3 set interface sc0 2 set sco2 3 set vlan management 2
28.	What does a switch do with a multicast frame received on an interface? Forwards the switch to the first available link Drops the frame Floods the network with the frame looking for the device Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution
29.	Choose the effects of configuring PIM SM on an interface. Enabling IGMP Enabling CGMP Enabling IGMP and CGMP Enabling Auto-RP
30.	Choose the three basic steps in establishing a shortcut cache (MLS cache) entry. Identification of the MLS-RP Identification of the MLS-SE Identification of a candidate packet Identification of an enable packet Identification of ISL trunking
31.	What is the default VLAN on all switches? VLAN 64 VLAN 1005 VLAN 1 VLAN 10
32.	Which of the following is a type of policy that you can apply at the distribution layer? (Choose all that apply.) Port security Access lists Distribute lists Physical security
33.	Which of the following is true regarding the Cisco 2950-24 switch? Runs the Standard Image software version of IOS Supports a large number of connections and also supports an internal route processor module Supports MLS Recommended for use at the distribution layer
34.	How many bits are available for mapping a layer 3 IP address to a multicast MAC address? 16 32 23 24
35.	What command will set spanning to the per-VLAN mode (PVST) on a 2950 switch? spanning-tree mode pvst spanningtree mode pvst+ spanning-tree pvst spanning-tree pvst mode
36.	What does the PVST protocol provide? One instance of spanning tree per network One instance of STP per VLAN Port Aggregation Protocol support Routing between VLANs
37.	What is the purpose of the IEEE 802.1p protocol? It is an extension to 802.1D (STP), providing PVST options. It is an extension to 802.1Q, providing CoS options. It is an extension to 802.1Q, providing faster STP convergence. It is an extension to 802.3, providing QoS options.
38.	Which of the following are examples of ways to directly connect to a switch? (Choose all that apply.) Console port VTY line Auxiliary port Telnet
39.	Which of the following IP address ranges is the valid multicast address range? 127.0.0.0–127.255.255.255 223.0.0.1–237.255.255.255 224.0.0.1–239.0.0.0 224.0.0.0–239.255.255.255
40.	Which of the following defines enterprise services? Users do not cross layer 3 devices, and the network services are in the same broadcast domain as the users. This type of traffic never crosses the backbone. No layer 3 switches or devices are used in this network. The users would have to cross a layer 3 device to communicate with the network services, but they might not have to cross the backbone. Layer 3 switches or routers are required in this scenario because the services must be close to the core and would probably be based in their own subnet.
41.	What is the command to enable trunking on interface fa0/1 on a 2950 switch? Terry_2950(config-if)#switchport trunk Terry_2950(config-if)#switchport trunk mode Terry_2950(config-if)#switchport mode trunk Terry_2950(config-if)#mode trunk switchport
42.	Which of the following is true regarding IGMPv2? It can be used only on Ethernet LANs. It is used to update multicast caches on workstations. IGMP works only with Unix devices. It enables clients to inform routers of their intent to leave.
43.	What type of cable must you use to connect between two switch uplink ports? Straight Rolled Crossover Fiber
44.	Which LAN switch methods have a fixed latency time? (Choose all that apply.) Cut-through Store-and-forward FragmentCheck FragmentFree
45.	Which of the following are true regarding a 2950T-24 switch? (Choose all that apply.) It is recommended for use primarily at the distribution layer. It supports frame classification and marking to create QoS options. It uses the Enhanced Image version of the IOS software. It supports rudimentary layer 3 switching.
46.	What is the relationship between frame CoS (Class of Service) and IP ToS (Type of Service)? There is no relationship unless you configure it to be so. They are the same thing. Conceptually, the 3 bits aim to identify the same prioritization. They are a direct map to each other.
47.	How do you set the usermode password to terry on a 4000 switch? set sco password terry set user password terry set password set enable password terry
48.	What are the three problems that are associated with layer 2 switching and are solved by STP? Address learning Routing Forwarding and filtering frames Forwarding and filtering packets Loop avoidance IP addressing
49.	When will a switch update its VTP database? Every 60 seconds. When a switch receives an advertisement that has a higher revision number, the switch will overwrite the database in NVRAM with the new database being advertised. When a switch broadcasts an advertisement that has a lower revision number, the switch will overwrite the database in NVRAM with the new database being advertised. When a switch receives an advertisement that has the same revision number, the switch will overwrite the database in NVRAM with the new database being advertised.
50.	What is the typical time that it takes a switch port to go from blocking to forwarding state? 5 seconds 50 seconds 10 seconds 100 seconds
51.	Which topology scenario(s) support Multi-Layer Switching (MLS)? (Choose all that apply.) Router on a stick Multiple switches connected via ISL trunks with only one switch connected to a router Multiple switches connected to a router Multiple routers connected to one switch
52.	Which of the following commands is used to view the configuration of an external route processor? show vlan-config show config show running-config show port slot/type
53.	To configure a root bridge on a set-based switch, what command would be used? set spanning tree backup set spantree secondary set spantree root spanning tree 2
54.	What are the two types of distribution trees? RP trees Multicast trees Shared root trees Source root trees
55.	When setting the VLAN port priority, what are the available values that you can use? 0–63 1–64 0–255 1–1005
56.	What are valid ways that an administrator can configure VLAN memberships? (Choose all that apply.) DHCP server Static Dynamic VTP database
57.	What is the distance that you can run an MMF, 62.5-micron Gigabit Ethernet cable? 400 meters 25 meters 260 meters 3 kilometers 10 kilometers
58.	You have just been hired as a consultant for a small company that has users distributed across many floors in the same building. Servers for the company are all located on the first floor, and 30 users access them from various parts of the building. What switch would you install for the access layer connection? 2900 series 3550 series 4000 series 6000 series
59.	Which of the following commands will display XTAG information on a switch? show mls entry show mls statistics show mls show mls rp ip
60.	Which statement about the 4000 series switches is true? They run CatOS, but can be upgraded to run IOS. The supervisor can be upgraded to run IOS, but CatOS remains on the switch cards. IOS is supported only for the layer 3 switching portion of the configurations. They can be upgraded to IOS from CatOS, but there is no mechanism to revert to CatOS.

Answers

1.	B The Spanning Tree Protocol was designed to help stop network loops that can happen with transparent bridge networks running redundant links. See Chapter 5 for more information.
2.	B, C, D MLSP is the routing protocol for MLS, MLS-SE is the switching engine, and MLS-RP is the route processor. MLS-CP is an invalid answer. See Chapter 7 for more information.
3.	A, B, C If you have Token Ring, you would want to run VTP version 2. See Chapter 3 for more information.
4.	A, B Join requests cause the interface to operate in PIM sparse mode. If a Catalyst is connected, the interface must be configured to use CGMP. See Chapter 8 for more information.
5.	C The first two are not valid commands. ip mroute cache allows the interface to use fast switching or other types of interface switching for multicast traffic. Refer to Chapter 8 for more information.
6.	A, B When a port is in blocking state, no frames are forwarded. This is used to stop network loops. However, the blocked port will listen for BPDUs received on the port. For more information on STP, see Chapter 4.
7.	C XTAG values are locally significant values that are assigned by the Multi-Layer Switching Switch Engine (MLS-SE) to keep track of the Multi-Layer Switching Route Processors (MLS- RPs) in the network. See Chapter 7 for more information.
8.	B, C, D The 3550, 4000 series, and 6000 series were specifically designed to provide distribution layer functions. See Chapter 1 for more information on the distribution layer and the Cisco switches designed to run at the distribution layer.
9.	C, D Bridges are considered software based and switches are considered hardware based. See Chapter 4 for more information.
10.	A The command show vtp counters is used to see VTP updates being sent and received on your switch. For more information, see Chapter 3.
11.	C The command interface vlan # is used to create a VLAN interface. The IP address of the interface is then configured with the ip address command. See Chapter 6 for more information on internal and external route processors.
12.	A 23 bits allows us to use the 127 value in the second octet. The MAC prefix is always 01-00-5e. See Chapter 8 for more information.
13.	A Local VLAN services are network services that are located in the same VLAN as the user trying to access them. Packets will not pass through a layer 3 device. See Chapter 1 for more information.
14.	C The 2950 uses Cisco IOS software, so the commands are the same as for a router. See Chapter 2 for more information.
15.	C Bridge Protocol Data Units are sent out every two seconds by default and provide information to switches throughout the internetwork. This includes finding redundant links, electing the root bridge, monitoring the links in the spanning tree, and notifying other switches in the network about link failures. See Chapter 5 for more information.
16.	B The router uses PIM to distribute RP information to multicast routers. The other syntax options are not valid. See Chapter 8 for more information.
17.	C Cisco’s proprietary version of frame tagging is ISL. However, if you do not have all Cisco switches, the IEEE 802.1Q version would be used. See Chapter 3 for more information.
18.	D The command set enablepass will set the password on a 4000 series switch. See Chapter 2 for more information on configuring the 4000 series switches.
19.	A The 3550 uses Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) to maintain tables that allow layer 3 switching to be carried out. See Chapter 6 for more information on layer 3 switching.
20.	D CGMP is not a version of IGMP but was developed by Cisco Systems. See Chapter 8 for more information.
21.	C The command set route default and the command set route 0.0.0.0 are the same command and can be used to set a default gateway on a 4000 series switch. See Chapter 6 for more information on configuring a 4000 series switch.
22.	C A high level of reliability, including redundancy, is encouraged at the core layer. See Chapter 1 for more information on policies.
23.	C To communicate with another VLAN, packets must cross a layer 3 device. See Chapter 1 for more information on local and remote VLAN services.
24.	C You cannot turn off pruneeligible for VLAN 1, which makes clear vtp pruneeligible 3-1005 the only correct answer. See Chapter 3 for more information.
25.	A, C, D First in, first out is a queuing mechanism. All the others are genuine models for QoS implementation. See Chapter 9 for more information.
26.	C Use IGMPv1 when the clients subscribing are using IGMPv1. See Chapter 8 for more information.
27.	B The command set interface sc0 vlan# changes the default VLAN for the supervisor module to the specified VLAN. See Chapter 2 for more information.
28.	C The switch will flood the network with the frame looking for the device. For more information on LAN switching, see Chapter 4.
29.	A Adding the PIM configuration to the interface enables only Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) in addition to PIM. Auto-RP and Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP) must be configured separately. See Chapter 8 for more information.
30.	A, C, D The Multi-Layer Switching Switch Engine (MLS-SE) needs to know three things to create an entry: the Multi-Layer Switching Route Processor (MLS-RP), a candidate packet, and an enable packet. See Chapter 7 for more information.
31.	C VLAN 1 is a default VLAN and used for management by default. See Chapter 5 for more information.
32.	B, C Access lists can be configured at the distribution layer for packet filtering purposes, and a distribute list controls how routing traffic is forwarded. See Chapter 1 for more information on policies at each layer.
33.	A The 2950-24 is an entry-level switch. Running the SI IOS image, it is suitable for use at the access layer only. See Chapter 1 for more information.
34.	C Due to the prefix length and the high order bit already in use in the multicast MAC address, only 23 bits are left for mapping. See Chapter 8 for more information.
35.	A The command to set spanning tree to the pvst mode on a 2950 switch is spanning-tree mode pvst. See Chapter 5 for more information.
36.	B The Cisco proprietary protocol Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) uses a separate instance of spanning tree for each and every VLAN. See Chapter 5 for more information.
37.	B 802.1p uses 3 bits in the 802.1Q field to set Class of Service. See Chapter 9 for more information.
38.	A, C Connecting to the console port or auxiliary port is out-of-band management because you are not accessing the equipment from within the network. Instead, you are connecting directly to the switch. See Chapter 2 for more information on basic switch setup.
39.	D The first answer is a Class B range of addresses. 223.0.0.1 does not have the proper mask. The third answer is within the valid range, but it is not all-inclusive. See Chapter 8 for more information.
40.	D Enterprise services are defined as services that are provided to all users on the internetwork. See Chapter 1 for more information.
41.	C The command to set an interface to trunk mode on an IOS-based switch is switchport mode trunk. See Chapter 3 for more information on trunking configurations.
42.	D Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) version 2 is used by IGMP routers to enable clients to send messages, telling the router that they no longer want to subscribe to the multicast stream. See Chapter 8 for more information regarding IGMP.
43.	C A crossover cable is used to connect switches to switches and hubs to hubs. See Chapter 2 for more information on the Catalyst 4000 configuration.
44.	A, D Cut-through and FragmentFree always read only a fixed amount of a frame. For more information on LAN switch types, see Chapter 4.
45.	B, C The 2950T-24 uses the EI image of IOS and supports both frame classification and marking, but like all 2950 series, it is primarily used at the access layer and does not support layer 3 switching. See Chapter 9 for more information.
46.	C Although CoS is configured at layer 2 and ToS at layer 3, both of them are mechanisms to identify different traffic priorities, and thus are conceptually the same in their meaning. See Chapter 9 for more information.
47.	C The command set password sets the usermode password on a 4000 series switch. See Chapter 2 for more information on configuring 4000 series switches.
48.	A, C, E Layer 2 features include address learning, forwarding and filtering of the network, and loop avoidance. See Chapter 4 for more information.
49.	B Only when a VTP update is received with a higher data VTP revision number will a switch update its VTP database. See Chapter 3 for more information.
50.	B Fifty seconds is the default time for changing from blocking to forwarding state. This is to allow enough time for all switches to update their STP database. See Chapter 4 for more information on STP.
51.	A, B, D The router on a stick is the typical and simplest topology for Multi-Layer Switching (MLS). Multiple switches connected to each other can use MLS if only one switch is connected to the router. Multiple routers can be connected to one switch as long as each router has only one link to the switch. See Chapter 7 for more information.
52.	C The command show running-config is used to view the current configuration. See Chapter 6 for more information on internal and external route processors.
53.	C The set spantree root command enables you to configure a root bridge. See Chapter 5 for more information.
54.	C, D Multicast trees don’t exist. Some protocols that are based in shared root trees can create RPTs (or RP trees) that are parallel to the shortest path tree, but this is a flavor of shared root tree distribution. See Chapter 8 for more information.
55.	A A priority from 0 to 63 can be set for each VLAN. See Chapter 3 for more information.
56.	B, C Static VLANs are set port by port on each interface or port. Dynamic VLANs can be assigned to devices via a server. See Chapter 3 for more information.
57.	C The maximum distance a Multi-Mode Fiber, 62.5-micron Gigabit Ethernet link can run is 260 meters. See Chapter 2 for more information.
58.	A Because the question involves a small company and no growth was specified, a couple of 2950s would be the most cost-effective solution. See Chapter 1 for more information.
59.	C The show mls rp ip command is used on routers and doesn’t provide XTAG information. Neither do any of the other switch commands. See Chapter 7 for more information.
60.	A The default OS for older 4000 switches is CatOS, but they can be upgraded to IOS. Newer switches may be purchased with IOS already running. See Chapter 10 for more information.