Chapter 4. Project PlanningFacilitating Processes

Chapter 4. Project PlanningFacilitating Processes

    Exam Prep Questions

    Answers and Explanations

Exam Prep Questions


To prepare for the PMP exam, it is important to understand how all of the Project Management processes interact with each other during the entire project life cycle. During this preparation, George realizes the fundamental differences between core processes and facilitating processes is

  • A. Core processes need to be done in the same order on most projects, whereas facilitating processes, although not optional, are performed intermittently and as needed.

  • B. Core processes are mandatory and facilitating processes are optional.

  • C. Core processes focus on developing the schedule, whereas facilitating processes focus on developing the project plan.

  • D. Core processes are measured and facilitating processes are not.


Rod is a friend of yours and is struggling with the definitions of quality. He believes quality is about testing. You are working with him on developing the quality management plan for a project on which you both are working. How would you describe the definition of quality planning?

  • A. Quality planning is evaluating the overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

  • B. Quality planning is the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its capability to satisfy stated or implied needs.

  • C. Quality planning is the monitoring of specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate the causes of unsatisfactory performance.

  • D. Quality planning is the identification of quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.


At the Jumping Gymboree for children, Ellen, the owner, is planning a new location. Very much an advocate of quality, she has learned a lot from the opening of her first site and doesn't want to make the same mistakes again. She has had a lessons-learned session facilitated by a professional to ensure the organization documents the process. She is ready to start the project and wants to make sure everything at the new site and any other additional sites is of high quality. She believes she should begin her quality management plan, but does not have much information about the new site, size, or location, or really whether the project will move forward. What should she be doing instead?

  • A. Focus on project initiation for the new site.

  • B. Establish a quality policy for Jumping Gymboree.

  • C. Obtain the local building requirements and regulations.

  • D. Formalize the lessons learned into a procedure for the development of new sites.


Jeff is a pharmacist who provides delivery orders to nursing homes. He is keenly interested in providing a high-quality service: Orders received by noon will be delivered by noon the next day. He always meets his target, and often exceeds it. However, his competitor, Ralph, is providing more services, such as 1-hour delivery, 24-hour delivery, and transportation to and from doctors' offices. His competitor is not as consistent, but is getting more and more business. How would you characterize the two businesses?

  • A. Jeff provides a high-grade, high-quality service, whereas Ralph provides a high-grade, low-quality service.

  • B. Jeff provides a low-grade, low-quality service, whereas Ralph provides a high-grade, high-quality service.

  • C. Jeff provides a low-grade, high-quality service, whereas Ralph provides a high-grade, low-quality service.

  • D. Jeff provides a high-grade, low-quality service, whereas Ralph provides a low-grade, high-quality service.


John is trying to make a case for improving quality efforts and planning in his company. He is aware that in the quality discipline, it is axiomatic that benefits outweigh costs, but he is trying to show how the costs of quality break down for his given project within his quality management plan. What three types of costs will he highlight?

  • A. Quality control, rework, and external

  • B. Prevention, appraisal, and failure

  • C. Internal, external, and stakeholder satisfaction

  • D. Experimental, benchmarking, and flow charting


Carmen is developing her quality management plan for an advertising campaign project. What items must it include for it to properly address quality management for her project?

  • A. It must be formal.

  • B. It must be related to the advertising industry standards for quality.

  • C. It must include information on quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement for the project.

  • D. It must include the advertising checklist of required steps for federal approval as well as the resources for the project.


You are working on a yearlong global project involving 60 different countries. The project has a large number of stakeholders because it is rolling out a new process for managing global procurement. You are in the project-planning phase of this project and working on the communication plan. What do you need to consider before you do your stakeholder analysis?

  • A. Understand the project organization, the number of departments and disciplines involved, the number of locations and individuals involved, and whether the procurement process will need to be communicated to vendors.

  • B. Meet with the project team to determine who would be the most likely project communication recipients.

  • C. Obtain global email address lists from corporate communications that have been used on similar projects.

  • D. Plan to communicate only with the project sponsor and corporate location because the project is a yearlong effort; communicating to other sites will not be necessary until the process is delivered.


Allen Prieto, a product manager for a manufacturer of vending mechanisms for Laundromats and soda machines, is working on a communications plan for his new debit card vending mechanism. He is interested in communicating with the dealerships that sell his equipment, but knows many of them have not made the technology leap to email because the business has traditionally been handled by paper and phone. He also knows there will be a move by corporate to require dealers to be Internet capable within three months. What factors should he consider in determining his communications method?

  • A. What other traditional mechanisms have been used for dealerships

  • B. Immediacy of need for information because the new product will be hot and dealers will want to know about it quickly

  • C. The technical details that will need to be communicated

  • D. Other stakeholders on the project; dealerships are not the only interested party


Reggie is developing a communications plan for his project. It is an informal and broadly framed statement indicating communications will be "as frequent as necessary as determined by the project control board" within his overall project plan and a communications matrix that provides the information on who will get what information when and how. What is he missing?

  • A. A statement of how data will be collected and stored and corrections distributed

  • B. A method for assessing information between scheduled communications

  • C. A method of updating and refining the communications management plan as the project progresses

  • D. A production schedule showing when each communication will be produced


Beth likes new technology, and is in the process of developing a communications plan for her project team. She is preparing to issue hand-held computers (PDAs) to all her project team, even though some of her team members are technology averse. Only parts of the team will be on call, and only during certain parts of the project. During her stakeholder analysis, what is Beth forgetting?

  • A. Beth needs a communications matrix to determine when the PDA communications should be dispatched.

  • B. Most managers already have PDAs and she will not have to issue them.

  • C. Care must be taken to avoid using inappropriate technology and delivering unnecessary information to the project team members who will not need "instant" information.

  • D. She will need a training plan for the team members who are technology averse.


Human resources management as it relates to Project Management includes which of the following?

  • A. Stakeholders, sponsors, customers, project team, and inter-ested parties

  • B. Project team members and project managers

  • C. Project team members

  • D. Identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles and responsibilities, and reporting relationships


Denise is a rather autocratic line manager and has recently taken a position managing IT projects for a consulting firm. Her project team members will generally be changing with each new project. How would you, as an experienced project manager, advise her with regard to her management style?

  • A. Denise has been successful as a manager in the past; she should continue the techniques that have been successful for her.

  • B. Remind her that she might want to alter her style because project teams are generally composed of individuals temporarily assigned to the project and new to working together.

  • C. Remind her that she will now rarely have direct authority over her project team members.

  • D. Suggest she use the X theory of human resources management.


Gina is a detail-oriented programmer in charge of a small software development project. She is having difficulty eliciting cooperation from her project team during the initiation phase. She has sent a detailed list of what she feels the project should be doing, but is not getting response from her team. How would you counsel her?

  • A. Gina should call a team meeting and have the team perform a lessons-learned session on why the project is not going as planned.

  • B. Talk to the sponsor and get referential authority to make the team perform the work.

  • C. Techniques that work well in one phase of a project might not work well in other phases. Therefore, she might need a collaborative approach during initiation.

  • D. All of the above.


The scheduling and coordinating of scarce resources is a challenge for a project manager, especially if the resources are committed to other projects or activities. Inputs to human resources planning include all of the following except

  • A. Templates

  • B. Project interfaces

  • C. Staffing requirements

  • D. Constraints


The term interface is frequently used in a variety of situations that are related to your project. The definition of a technical interface, with regard to human resources management, is which of the following?

  • A. A method of moving data between organizational units

  • B. Formal or informal reporting relationships between different technical disciplines, such as design and tooling

  • C. The actual reporting relationship between two individuals in an organization

  • D. Technical interfaces do not exist between human resources; this is a systems term


Fast Auto Supply has hired Edward Thomas, also known as E.T. to his friends, to finish the development of a new radio product. E.T. is reviewing the documents his predecessor has created. He comes across a list of job skills and competencies, and the time frame in which these would be needed. What is E.T. reviewing?

  • A. Resource requirements

  • B. Staffing requirements

  • C. Team evaluations

  • D. A preliminary project plan


Ron is given an assignment to run a project to develop a new ice cream flavor. He is told that he must use Rick, a chemist in the food products department, on this project. This is an example of what?

  • A. Management preferences

  • B. An expected staff-assignment constraint

  • C. Poor management practices because the project has not been chartered or scoped

  • D. A collective-bargaining agreement


It is good to have cohesiveness within a team. However, group think is dangerous in a project environment because

  • A. It inhibits appropriate problem solving.

  • B. It tends to enable groups to consider unpopular alternatives.

  • C. It allows for the use of outside expertise, undermining the project team.

  • D. It requires a sizeable amount of time to survey warning signals from other groups and organizations.


Providing support and enthusiasm to team members and stakeholders is a valuable ingredient for a successful project manager. Coaching is considered what type of human resources technique?

  • A. Corrective

  • B. A role on the organizational chart

  • C. A practice designed to facilitate managing

  • D. A type of stakeholder analysis


The corporate "grapevine" is considered what form of communication?

  • A. Accurate, especially for project information

  • B. An informal channel that might or might not have truthful information that should be considered by a project manager

  • C. Inappropriate

  • D. A "real world" communications method


As the project develops through the planning phase, various deliverables are constructed that are inputs to other parts of the project. One of these deliverables is a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM), which is used for what part of human resources planning?

  • A. Role and responsibility assignments as an output of planning

  • B. A resource pool description

  • C. In conjunction with large, noncollocated groups to facilitate meeting management

  • D. To govern certain portions of a project


Surrounding yourself with the right people at the right time is a form of resource leveling that will be beneficial in the long run and might reduce variances to your budget. What is one of the key elements of a staffing management plan?

  • A. How staff will be released from a project when they are no longer needed

  • B. A resource histogram

  • C. Details about resource skill sets

  • D. All of the above


An experienced project manager once said, "Projects would run incredibly well if people's agendas did not get in the way." This statement summarizes one of the human resource challenges that a project manager must cope with throughout the entire project. Human resource planning produces all but which of the following artifacts?

  • A. Performance evaluation

  • B. Organization chart

  • C. A staff management plan

  • D. RAM


You are developing a network diagram using an activity on arrow (AOA) format. While you are formatting the drawing, you show how the activities are linked together by using circles. These circles are known as

  • A. Data

  • B. Events

  • C. Predecessors

  • D. Loops


Rick is working in a functionally organized company and is attempting to staff his project. Working in this environment can be a constraint to his resource planning. He does not have a preassigned group, nor does he have the money to obtain outside resources. What can Rick do?

  • A. Use the stage gate technique to stop the project until staffing issues are resolved.

  • B. Negotiate with functional managers and other project managers for staffing on his project.

  • C. Attempt to do the project himself, and lengthen the time for delivery.

  • D. Consult the organizational policies for recruitment.


A staffing pool description provides which of the following pieces of information?

  • A. Employee's past performance reviews

  • B. Employee competencies

  • C. Employee age

  • D. Employee bill rate


The process of interviewing and hiring personnel is a time- and resource-consuming part of the staff acquisition process. Therefore, many companies are outsourcing this human resource function to other organizations so they can focus on their core competencies instead. The outputs of staff acquisition are which of the following?

  • A. Assignment characteristics

  • B. Contracts for outsourced staff

  • C. Staff assignments and project team directory

  • D. All of the above


Arnie and Jeff are project managers who are having lunch and discussing their respective projects and the risks associated with each.

"I just don't know what I don't know!" says Arnie, frustrated.

"Do a SWOT," Jeff offers.

What is Jeff talking about?

  • A. An analysis of security, work breakdown structure (WBS), objectives, and tactics

  • B. A strategic waterfall opportunity template

  • C. Jeff's mouth was fullhe meant to say "SWAG"

  • D. An evaluation of the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats that might affect Arnie's project


Risk identification can be defined as

  • A. Identifying all the risks on a project

  • B. Determining which risks might affect a project and recording their attributes

  • C. Identifying key risks by performing a Pareto analysis

  • D. Knowing when to label issues as risks for mitigation purposes


Cara is having regular team meetings on her new footwear product. She has had the team do a first cut on its view of what risks affect the project. What should she do next?

  • A. Document the risks and file them in the project folder.

  • B. Involve stakeholders in a second review and then file in the project folder.

  • C. Involve stakeholders in a second review and then individuals who are not project team members for a final, unbiased review.

  • D. Develop risk responses.


Boyd works in the pharmaceutical industry and is involved in a new drug release to help individuals who suffer from chronic depression. He is aware of a potential new change in the way the FDA allows new drug products to come to market, but he is not sure whether his product will be "grandfathered." This is an example of which of the following?

  • A. An internal risk

  • B. A technical risk

  • C. Iterative product development

  • D. An external risk


Surfer Joe lives and works in Los Angeles, an earthquake-prone area, and is a manager of IT operations for a health food distributor. He is working on developing a business continuity site for his computer room, outside of the earthquake zone. What type of risk is Joe trying to mitigate?

  • A. An external risk

  • B. An organizational risk

  • C. Force majeure

  • D. A Project Management risk


A golf club manufacturer is beginning a project to develop a new club head out of a titanium alloy using an unproven high heat and cooling method. The product will have embedded "flex beads," and is expected to revolutionize the industry, according to management. As the project manager for the new product development, which of the following concerns you most?

  • A. Lack of prior experience in product development

  • B. The technical risks associated with the new manufacturing method

  • C. Other companies getting the process developed first

  • D. Sufficiency of the budget to cover experimentation


Your company has decided to develop a Project Management Office (PMO) specifically to address the new rapid development methodologies available in IT. As the project manager for the development and deployment of the methodology, you are concerned because your boss, the CIO, has said she wants it to be available in two months and you have no staff to help. What type of risk is this?

  • A. Both project and organizational

  • B. External

  • C. Technical

  • D. Job


You are trying to gain consensus on issues associated with a merger between your company, which produces egg rolls, and a new startup in the egg roll business. You have sent questionnaires to legal, marketing, and manufacturing and have compiled the results. You are now about to send out the compilation for a new round of feedback. What technique are you using?

  • A. Brainstorming

  • B. Interviewing

  • C. Delphi

  • D. Assumption analysis


As a project manager, you want to solicit information from experts, but do not want a single individual to have undue influence over the results. You are looking for the most unbiased data possible. What technique should you use?

  • A. Brainstorming

  • B. Interviewing

  • C. Delphi

  • D. Assumption analysis


An Ishikawa diagram is useful for all but which of the following processes?

  • A. Quality control

  • B. Risk identification

  • C. Quality planning

  • D. Activity sequencing


There are various methods to graphically depict the logic of a project. Which of the following diagramming techniques is not used as a tool of risk identification?

  • A. System process

  • B. Fishbone

  • C. WBS

  • D. Influence


You are driving down the highway and going above the speed limit. Behind you, you see a state trooper car with its lights flashing. The state trooper car is an example of what?

  • A. Poor judgment

  • B. A cause and effect

  • C. A risk trigger

  • D. A risk


Jane has been working long hours on her project. Many of her team members have been coming down with the Asian flu, and causing project delays. As a key project team member, Jane has now listed the Asian flu as a minor project risk, in case she gets it. Jane, sitting alone at her desk, begins to cough and feel chilled. What has happened?

  • A. A risk response

  • B. A cause and effect

  • C. A risk trigger

  • D. A risk


Risk identification, analysis of risks, and development of mitigation strategies are vital steps in the success of a project. Assessing the impact and likelihood of identified risks is known as

  • A. Risk management

  • B. Quantitative risk analysis

  • C. Qualitative risk analysis

  • D. Risk assessment


Because project managers spend a large percentage of their time communicating with other team members and stakeholders, being timid is usually not a virtue for success. Interviewing is a technique identified by PMI that can be used in a number of processes to gather information that might be vital to the project. Which process does not use interviewing?

  • A. Qualitative risk analysis

  • B. Quantitative risk analysis

  • C. Risk identification

  • D. Risk management


Weighing of risks and risk outcomes should impact the project selection process as an organization decides what projects should be added to its project portfolio. What factor can magnify the importance of a particular risk?

  • A. Time criticality of risk-related actions

  • B. Quality of information

  • C. Mitigation strategies

  • D. Prioritization


Determining the validity of information and the probability of outcomes can be a guessing game in some circumstances and can lead to ambiguity and chaos. Data precision is an input to assessing the impact and likelihood of an identified risk. What does data precision provide?

  • A. Information on the extent to which a risk is known, the data available, and the quality of the data about the risk

  • B. A probability rating for the risk

  • C. The extent to which assumptions are used in evaluating risks

  • D. The risk priority


Aaron is developing a project plan and assessing risk. He realizes he has a noncollocated project team, multiple functional departments involved, and multiple IT teams programming, using a new unproven web tool. James, on the other hand, is working on a project that is using a single, proven technology with one team. What is their relative project risk based on project type?

  • A. James has a relatively high-risk project because his team is noncollocated.

  • B. Aaron has a relatively low-risk project type because there are many experts involved.

  • C. James has a highly complex project using state-of-the-art technology, and is therefore in a project with more uncertainty.

  • D. Aaron has a highly complex project using state-of-the-art technology, and is therefore in a project with more uncertainty.


Craig needs to decide what projects should be added to the project review board agenda for the meeting next week. He has a list of over 20 projects that have various degrees of risk and return on investment (ROI). Therefore, he ranks the projects according to their probability of success and ROI. A risk probability is defined as

  • A. A rating of high, medium, or low

  • B. The impact of a risk to the project

  • C. The effect on project objectives if the risk occurs

  • D. The likelihood that a risk will occur


During the planning phase of a project, you should do a risk analysis for your project. Attributing a quantitative measurement to risks can be a challenge because different people might have different opinions of which attributes are the most important. A risk impact scale that is high, medium, or low is known as

  • A. A probability scale

  • B. An ordinal scale

  • C. A cardinal scale

  • D. Nonlinear


Utilization of best practices in Project Management requires the retainment of archives for future reference. Part of these archives should include risk analysisrelated deliverables so they can be reviewed for future projects. Assessing risk probability is difficult because

  • A. Probability assessment is a mathematical process that requires a mathematician.

  • B. Data precision is unknown.

  • C. At the beginning of a project, risk is higher.

  • D. It often requires expert judgment, and is often done without the benefit of historical information.


Data precision ranking uses all of the following except

  • A. Extent of understanding of the risk

  • B. Quality of the data about a risk

  • C. A probability impact matrix

  • D. Reliability and integrity of the data about a risk


Rachel has been working on the qualitative risk analysis for her canning machinery rebuild project. She notices that her data precision rankings for most of her risks are very low. What should she do?

  • A. Revisit the rankings with the project team.

  • B. Accept the data as it is. The rankings are intended to be a guideline to develop risk responses.

  • C. See whether she can gather more accurate data.

  • D. Consult an expert.


Outputs of qualitative risk analysis include all of the following except

  • A. Overall risk ranking for the project

  • B. Risk triggers

  • C. List of prioritized risks

  • D. List of risks requiring additional analysis and management effort


The ability to research the project risks and capture them for future reference helps to show a relationship to the success of a project. Quantitative risk analysis and qualitative risk analysis differ in what ways?

  • A. Qualitative risk analysis assesses the impact and likelihood, whereas quantitative risk analysis assesses the consequence on specific project objectives.

  • B. Quantitative risk analysis assesses the impact and likelihood, whereas qualitative risk analysis assesses the consequence on specific project objectives.

  • C. They are essentially the same and generally done at the same time.

  • D. Qualitative risk analysis uses the risk management as input whereas quantitative risk analysis does not.


There are numerous objectives of the risk analysis process that can contribute to the development of the change control management process. One of the objectives of quantitative risk analysis is to

  • A. Develop a probability of project success.

  • B. Quantify the risk exposure of a project and determine the size of reserves needed.

  • C. Perform sensitivity analysis.

  • D. Use the Monte Carlo technique.


Unfortunately, risk analysis is not done regularly on many projects at many companies. A lot of time should be spent on risk analysis during the planning phase as a key ingredient to the success of a project by proactively identifying and isolating known risk occurrences. Randy is evaluating a number of risk options and the probabilities as well as costs associated with each option. He wants to provide the highest expected value for his choice. What tool should he use?

  • A. Critical path method (CPM)

  • B. Decision tree analysis

  • C. Sensitivity analysis

  • D. Expert judgment


Dylan has formed his new IT team and looks forward to planning his first project. His mentor has emphasized that he needs to develop a risk response plan to help show the IT governance board that he is forward thinking in his project plan development. Which of the following is not true of risk response planning?

  • A. It must be timely.

  • B. It must be cost effective.

  • C. It is decided by the project manager.

  • D. It must be owned by a responsible person.


The ability to be creative and open minded about new ideas will have a positive impact upon your risk response plan development and can lead to other opportunities as others realize your capabilities. Risk response planning involves which of the following?

  • A. Developing options and assigning individual responsibility for risk responses

  • B. Identifying risks requiring the most attention

  • C. Determining whether a risk trigger has occurred

  • D. Reducing threats to the project


You are creating your risk response plan and are deciding to change your project plan resources to protect your project from the impact of a key resource needing to use the Family Leave Act. What type of risk response strategy are you using?

  • A. Acceptance

  • B. Mitigation

  • C. Transference

  • D. Avoidance


Jessica is developing a project plan for a project with a new technology and realizes the in-house programmers do not have the experience to do the work, which could potentially cause the project schedule to be delayed significantly during their learning curve. As a consequence, Jessica has decided to use a contracting firm with a fixed-price bid to address the coding risk. What type of risk strategy is she using?

  • A. Acceptance

  • B. Mitigation

  • C. Transference

  • D. Avoidance


A1 company wants you to develop a new web front end to a legacy system. The functionality of the entire development involves more than 1,000 transactions. You are expected to deliver the new system in one year. As you develop the project plan, you realize the risk of delivering a year out might hide problems in terms of the complexity of the project and you decide to propose delivery of small, frequent packages of functionality in one-month intervals. What type of risk strategy are you using?

  • A. Agile programming techniques

  • B. Mitigation

  • C. Transference

  • D. Avoidance


Some people indicate that Project Management adds too much paperwork and documentation to the project and does not have a perceived value. By providing value-added deliverables such as a risk analysis and a risk register, a project manager allows stakeholders to have a full understanding of the issues that could add to the timeline and/or costs of the project. A risk register is also known as

  • A. A risk threshold

  • B. A risk management plan

  • C. A list of prioritized risks

  • D. A risk response plan


Being prepared to respond to adverse conditions is part of many healthcare workers' jobs. Increasing numbers of clinical personnel are realizing how Project Management risk response planning can be incorporated into their operations to handle these adverse situations. A risk response plan should include all of the following except

  • A. Risk owners and responsibilities

  • B. Specific actions to implement

  • C. Contractual agreements

  • D. Budgets and time frames for responses


A residual risk is defined as

  • A. A risk that arises as a direct result of a risk response

  • B. A risk that remains as an accepted or unaddressed risk

  • C. A risk that is not properly mitigated, and therefore remains

  • D. A risk that must be incorporated into the project plan


The process to acquire capital goods can be time consuming, especially if numerous approvals are needed and there is a lack of urgency from the departments involved in the purchase order process. Determining when to obtain products and services from outside the organization for a project should be done during which process?

  • A. Activity cost estimating

  • B. Procurement planning

  • C. Scope definition

  • D. Activity definition


Ray has a technical problem with his project implementing the infrastructure needed for a voice response unit. He is considering an outside vendor for help, and knows that because he is late in the planning process, he will only have a limited budget to engage help. He also knows the system he is implementing is only supported by one firm in his city. What factors are most likely to influence his procurement planning?

  • A. Market conditions

  • B. His project scope statement

  • C. Contract type

  • D. Other units in his organization


Ron is running a construction firm, and working on a business building in the downtown area. He realizes he will need an extra dump truck to make the schedule for clearing the lot. In general, Ron has sufficient trucking capacity, but he might be getting more downtown work. He is considering procuring another truck, but isn't sure whether he should rent or buy. How should Ron approach the issue?

  • A. Perform a cost benefit analysis.

  • B. Determine the indirect and direct costs of each option, and estimate the portion allocated to the project for a purchase.

  • C. Consider double shifts on the trucks he has.

  • D. Contact a consultant.


Josh wants to transfer risk to another entity in order to reduce the risk for his "hole-in-one" celebrity golf tournament project. Because this generally involves a cost, it will be necessary for documents to be created that outline the obligations of both parties. Which contract type moves risk to the seller most effectively?

  • A. Fixed price

  • B. Cost-reimbursable

  • C. Cost plus

  • D. Time and material


Rhonda has decided to outsource a particular deliverable on her construction project. She has described the product and services in detail and has included the necessary reporting requirements. What has Rhonda prepared?

  • A. A statement of work (SOW)

  • B. A contract

  • C. A procurement management plan

  • D. A scope definition


New project managers are frequently perplexed by the proliferation of various terms in the Project Management field. Two areas frequently confused include procurement and solicitation. The difference between procurement planning and solicitation planning is

  • A. Procurement planning develops the procurement management plan, whereas solicitation planning develops the SOW.

  • B. Procurement planning involves preparing the documents to support solicitation, whereas solicitation planning identifies which project deliverables can be best met by an outside organization.

  • C. Procurement planning identifies which project deliverables can be best met by an outside organization, whereas solicitation planning involves preparing the documents to support solicitation.

  • D. Procurement planning develops the evaluation criteria for vendors, whereas solicitation planning determines the SOW.


Companies spend millions of dollars annually by moving employees from cubicle to cubicle and office to office. Ellen is setting up a meeting to talk about her requirements to all prospective companies hoping to provide the moving service for her office move project. What type of meeting is Ellen having?

  • A. A project kickoff meeting

  • B. An illegal onediscussion with prospective sellers before a contract is unethical

  • C. A prebid conference

  • D. An advertising meeting


During procurement planning, Jeff is considering the items he needs to outsource, and the vendors who could potentially be involved. Why is it important for Jeff to consider potential vendors?

  • A. To create the qualified seller list

  • B. In order to exercise some degree of control over contracting decisions

  • C. Jeff doesn't need to consider vendors; that task is done in solicitation planning and the actual solicitation process

  • D. Because vendor capability is a risk to be factored into his planning


From the following table, what is the total slack for Event 1?


Duration Estimate (Days)

Earliest Start

Earliest Finish

Latest Start

Latest Finish

Event 1






Event 2






Event 3






Event 4






  • A. 10

  • B. 25

  • C. 30

  • D. 20


From the table in Question 71, which event has a negative slack?

  • A. Event 3

  • B. Event 2

  • C. Event 1

  • D. None


From the table in Question 71, what is the total slack for the project?

  • A. 20

  • B. 161

  • C. 268

  • D. 88


Budiono is excited to be involved with his new international project in Indonesia but is trying to determine the critical path for his project because several of the tasks have long durations. In doing forward pass and backward pass calculations, it is important for him to identify and focus on paths of tasks that have a __________ slack for the project.

  • A. negative

  • B. zero

  • C. positive

  • D. delayed


Norma has been doing Project Management for over 20 years and has never heard of PMI. Now she is overwhelmed with all the new terminology that she has to learn from the PMBOK for tasks that she used to take for granted. She is surprised to find out that the longest path of activities from the beginning to the end of the project is called the

  • A. Path with positive slack

  • B. Relative difference

  • C. Critical path

  • D. Schedule variance


While evaluating the network diagram for the town hall expansion project, Jeff looks at the relationship between the facility management timelines and the construction contractors. He realizes the earliest start and the earliest finish times for the tasks are determined by calculating _________ through the diagram.

  • A. forward

  • B. backward

  • C. progressive elaborations

  • D. consistently


Using backward pass calculations, what is the latest start time of a task if the duration is 37 days, the required completion is 219 days, the latest finish is 245 days, and the estimated completion is 205 days?

  • A. 208

  • B. 14

  • C. 40

  • D. 450

Use the following network diagram logic to answer Questions 78 and 79:


Sara has never seen a network diagram before, but she must explain the concept to the shareholders at next week's steering committee meeting, and get their buy-in for the schedule of a software development project that she is working on. This diagram is an example of

  • A. Activity on arrow formatting

  • B. Looping

  • C. Serial processing

  • D. Laddering


What type of formatting is it?

  • A. Activity on arrow

  • B. Activity in box

  • C. Work breakdown structure

  • D. Responsibility assignment matrix


With the development of a new space shuttle landing protocol, you need to make some decisions about the duration estimates that you are to provide at the kickoff meeting with the heads of the aerospace division. By following a beta probability distribution with three estimates and utilizing a network diagram, calculate the expected duration with the following probabilities:

T (Optimistic) = 7 days

T (Most Likely) = 10 days

T (Pessimistic) = 22 days

  • A. 7 days

  • B. 17 days

  • C. 12 days

  • D. 32 days