Chapter 13. Answers to Practice Exam 2

1. C

2. C

3. C

4. C

5. D

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. A

10. D

11. C

12. B

13. A

14. D

15. C

16. B

17. B

18. C

19. C

20. A

21. D

22. B

23. D

24. B

25. D

26. D

27. B

28. A

29. C

30. C

31. A

32. C

33. D

34. B

35. B

36. C

37. D

38. B

39. C

40. A

41. A

42. B

43. B

44. B

45. C

46. C

47. D

48. B

49. D

50. B

Question 1

Answer C is correct. When a person is ethnocentric, he or she judges others based on his or her own culture. This results in an individual being less open to other people and their viewpoints.

Question 2

Answer C is correct. The signed contract (or statement of work) should indicate the acceptance criteria for each milestone deliverable, and it should indicate the authorization criteria for milestone and bonus payments. Answer A is incorrect because the procurement management plan describes how the overall project procurement process will be managed and would not include the type of details needed to resolve this conflict. Answer B is incorrect because the solicitation plan deals with the selection of the contractor, not with the administration of the contract. Answer D is incorrect because the scope statement does not deal with payment schedules and terms.

Question 3

Answer C is correct. Even though the project has been closed, it is important to bring this information to the attention of your management. They will need to verify your concerns and then address the findings with the customer.

Question 4

Answer C is correct. A project plan is used by the entire project team and helps to communicate the tasks needed during a specified timeframe. The project plan is distributed to the project staff according to the communications plan.

Question 5

Answer D is correct. Although certain ad hoc communications and information requests are handled during project execution, decisions on how, when, and with whom to communicate are defined in the planning stage in a communications plan.

Question 6

Answer B is correct. Preventing change from affecting execution is impossible. Change control allows for the effective execution and incorporation of a change into the project plan. The change-control board is the body that accepts or rejects a change request. As such, it must be informed and is part of the change-control system.

Question 7

Answer D is correct. Progressive elaboration is focused on the definition of the product of the project (pages 5 6, PMBOK) and should not affect the project scope if done properly. Answer A is incorrect because it is focused on the product. Answer B is incorrect because this better describes decomposition. Answer C is incorrect because progressive elaboration is not focused on project scope.

Question 8

Answer C is correct. This incorporates the definition of program straight out of the PMBOK. Answer A is incorrect because a program manager does not have to be part of a PMO. A PMO may have both program and project managers in its organization, but this depends on the nature of the PMO and the sponsoring organization. Answer B is incorrect because a program manager deals with multiple projects, so a program manager would normally direct one or more project managers. Answer D is incorrect because the terms do mean different things and are not interchangeable.

Question 9

Answer A is correct. The best way to make sure you are not at a disadvantage is to listen to the opinions of all parties. Through listening you not only build the trust of everyone involved, but you also become more knowledgeable about the subject at hand.

Question 10

Answer D is correct. Although some projects may have tasks that can be monitored monthly or weekly (and will depend on the project itself), the PMBOK's best answer is continuously. This way, a project manager can ensure budget adherence and timeliness of the project.

Question 11

Answer C is correct. A stakeholder is anyone whose interests are affected by the project. Answer A is incorrect because the company paying for a project is the customer (although the company is a stakeholder, this is not a full definition). Answer B can be true, but not all stakeholders can exert influence over the outcome of a project. Answer D is incorrect because the project manager, customer, project team, and sponsors are always stakeholders.

Question 12

Answer B is correct. Such a culture is referred to as high context. The business environment is very relationship centered; therefore, a great deal of time can be spent getting to know the individual(s) and the performing organization.

Question 13

Answer A is correct. It focuses on the key challenge facing project managers getting things done without direct control. Answers B, C, and D are all incorrect because none is the best response. Each of them describes a valid function of a project manager, but these are not tasks a project manager does on a daily basis.

Question 14

Answer D is correct. Although part of answer A is correct, the part indicating no differences is not correct. Answer B is incorrect because both quality planning and quality assurance use the same tools and techniques. Answer C is incorrect because it is not a requirement that a QA department perform the quality assurance function on a project.

Question 15

Answer C is correct. Although answer A may be true in some circumstances, a good project manager will manage budget overruns so that projects are brought in on time and on budget. Answer B is incorrect because approval time would be the costliest time to influence product characteristics because rework would be necessary.

Question 16

Answer B is correct. Opportunity cost is defined as the difference in the returns from a selected investment and another that is passed up.

Question 17

Answer B is correct. The best way to handle such a situation is to not draw attention to their possible categorization of you but rather reveal through your actions that you do not hold such traits.

Question 18

Answer C is correct. A change-control procedure is not needed to provide a project time or cost estimate. However, the WBS, the identified risks, and committed resource levels are needed to provide the estimate. Therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 19

Answer C is correct. Kaizen is the Japanese term for continuous improvement. The purpose of quality assurance is improvement in the project. Answer A is incorrect because quality control measures against quality standards. Answer B is incorrect because Kaizen has to do with quality, not solicitation. Answer D is incorrect because there is no quality planning organization named Kaizen.

Question 20

Answer A is correct. Legitimate power is based on an individual's organizational authority or position. Answers B and C are incorrect because referential power is based on the ability to use authority, other than your own, to get a project done. Answer D is incorrect because coercive power is based on fear.

Question 21

Answer D is correct. A project phase and a project management process group are not the same thing. Each of the project management process groups occur within a project phase.

Question 22

Answer B is correct. Answers A and C are incorrect and are both plays on the words fast tracking. Answer D is incorrect because this describes another popular schedule compression technique, called crashing.

Question 23

Answer D is correct. This is an example of the fundamental accounting concepts that need to be understood for the PMP exam. Double-declining balance is an accelerated depreciation accounting technique.

Question 24

Answer B is correct. Status review meetings should be regularly scheduled, although the frequency of the meetings may depend on the project (that is, weekly versus monthly). Although ad hoc meetings are generally called when a problem arises, they are not status review meetings. Therefore, answer A is incorrect. Project team participants should be involved in status review meetings. Therefore, answer C is incorrect. Although status meetings are part of executing, they are not part of actually accomplishing project tasks. Therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Question 25

Answer D is correct. This definition of Project Management Information System is straight from the PMBOK (page 44). Answer B is tempting, but it describes lessons learned more than the PMIS and is therefore incorrect.

Question 26

Answer D is correct. These are the characteristics that distinguish operations from projects. Answers A and B are both true but are not complete answers because they also apply to projects. Answer C is a trick, because we generally consider planning, execution, and control to be project-oriented topics.

Question 27

Answer B is correct. Here's the breakdown:

  • SV (schedule variance) = EV (earned value) planned value (PV) = $75,000 $125,000 = $-50,000

  • CV (cost variance) = EV (earned value) actual costs (AC) = $75,000 $100,000 = $-25,000

  • EAC (estimate at completion) = BAC (budgeted at completion) / CPI (cost performance index)

  • CPI = EV / AC = $75,000 / $100,000 = .75

  • EAC = BAC / CPI = $225,000/.75 = $300,000

Question 28

Answer A is correct. This is generally considered gold-plating by PMBOK. Neat, extra features not requested by the customer should be avoided. Answers B, C, and D are all examples of when a change request should be initiated and are therefore incorrect answers.

Question 29

Answer C is correct. A WBS is not a project-scheduling method. Answers A, B, and D are all true statements concerning a WBS and are therefore incorrect answers.

Question 30

Answer C is correct. Answers A, B, and D are all benefit-measurement methods of project selection and are therefore incorrect answers.

Question 31

Answer A is correct. A weighting system is a method of applying quantitative methods to qualitative data to minimize subjectivity. Answer B is incorrect because minimum performance requirements define a screening system. Answer C is incorrect because it deals with scope definition and estimating. Answer D is incorrect because it is a recommended technique.

Question 32

Answer C is correct. The staffing management plan documents when and how each person starts on the project and plans to leave the project. Answer A is incorrect because the roles and responsibilities matrix does not describe the "timing" elements. Answer B is tempting, but it is not the best source for this information. Answer D is incorrect because the communications plan does not deal with the use of a project's human resources.

Question 33

Answer D is correct. Referential authority is related to managing through another, more highly placed individual in an organization. Per the PMBOK definition, a change-control system must have paperwork, tracking mechanisms, and approval requirements, thus making answers A, B, and C incorrect.

Question 34

Answer B is correct. Although meetings are often required to update a schedule, this can be done through other means, such as email. Therefore, answer A is incorrect. Re-baselining is only necessary if a major change to the scope or timeline of the project has occurred. Therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is tempting, because a project scheduling system with a tightly integrated time-reporting capability would be a great asset for the schedule control process, but it is not a requirement for doing schedule control.

Question 35

Answer B is correct. Although answers A and C may be true, rework is detected and required only through the quality control process.

Question 36

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because risk control must take place throughout a project. Answer B is incorrect because it's only partially true. This leaves answer C to be the best answer.

Question 37

Answer D is correct. Although risk is higher earlier in a project lifecycle, it is not part of the definition. Answers A, B, and C are all characteristics of a lifecycle definition and are therefore incorrect answers.

Question 38

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because monitoring work results is quality control. Answer C is also incorrect, although earned value is sometimes used in contract payments. Answer D is tempting, but it is incorrect due to the focus on "monitoring" rather than "measuring" and the incomplete definition.

Question 39

Answer C is correct. Answer A is incorrect because this is the definition of cost variance. Although answer B is true, a project manager must continually assess the variance to determine whether corrective action must be taken. Answer D is incorrect because schedule variance can be positive and may not necessarily require corrective action.

Question 40

Answer A is correct. Collocation and a projectized environment are the best situations for a project team. Although the scenario in answer B can work effectively, team members with other functional duties will have conflicts of priorities. Therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it's the definition of subject matter experts. Answer D is tricky because offsite team building is often encouraged in team literature. However, in this case, it's an incorrect answer.

Question 41

Answer A is correct. Involving the team in the planning of the project helps to develop buy-in by all members and provides them with a better understanding of the project. Although having a barbeque can be a team-building technique, it isn't the best one in this case. Therefore, answer B is incorrect. Lessons learned sessions are typically done at the end of phases or the end of a project. These can be team-building events by airing difficulties, but they are intended to correct project direction, not to build a team. Therefore, answer C is incorrect. Allowing individuals to operate independently is a good management technique in general. However, if they're allowed to do so without supervision or project control, it could actually cause team problems. Therefore, Answer D is incorrect.

Question 42

Answer B is correct. Project information is important so that stakeholders and sponsors understand how well a project is meeting its goals. For sponsors, a project behind schedule may call for some type of intervention. Answer A is incorrect because, although it is important to create a project archive, it is not the purpose of distributing the information. Answer C is incorrect because project sponsorship should be resolved prior to project initiation. Occasionally a project is cancelled because it no longer meets the needs of the sponsors or company, but distributing the project information is not intended to keep sponsorship of the project. Answer D is incorrect because conflicts need to be managed by the project manager and resolved apart from reporting on the project.

Question 43

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because a schedule change may not mean there is a scope change. Likewise, answer C is incorrect because a change request may not require a scope change. Answer D is incorrect because a change in resource allocation does not mean a scope change has occurred.

Question 44

Answer B is correct. Although the WBS is key to creating the schedule, it is not used for schedule management. Therefore, answer A is incorrect. Payments to vendors may indeed be based on tasks in the WBS, but they are not the primary method for discerning payment. The contract is the method by which the payment obligations are defined. Therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is also incorrect because the WBS is created after project initiation.

Question 45

Answer C is correct. The WBS is an effective stakeholder communication tool. Answer A is incorrect because there are no calendar dates on the WBS. Calendar dates are on the project schedule. Answer B is incorrect because the business justification is not part of the WBS. Answer D is incorrect because dependencies are shown on the network diagram and project schedule, but not the WBS.

Question 46

Answer C is correct. The solicitation process is the means by which you let vendors know what your requirements are. They then respond with a proposal on how they can meet your requirements. Answer A is incorrect because requirement gathering is done in the procurement planning stage. Answer B is incorrect because the actual determination of vendor happens in the source selection phase. Answer D is incorrect because price negotiation happens in the source selection phase as well.

Question 47

Answer D is correct. Answer A is only partially correct because the corporate procurement policies do affect a contract, but that is not when it is created. Answer B is incorrect because the receipt of a proposal does not make a legal contract. Answer C is incorrect because a contract must be signed before work can be done. However, in certain circumstances, the actual act of work being produced can be considered a default contract. Project managers need to avoid this.

Question 48

Answer B is correct. Scope verification deals with formal acceptance of the project work results. Answer A is incorrect because this describes quality assurance. Answer C is incorrect because verbal acceptance is not adequate. Answer D is incorrect because it is focused on verification of assigned tasks rather than work results.

Question 49

Answer D is correct. Work authorization is intended to ensure the proper tasks are done at the proper time. It is usually a formal system with written authorizations. A work authorization system does prevent projects from spending money at the wrong times. However, it doesn't prevent them from spending unnecessarily. A good work authorization system is designed to work for the scale of the project.

Question 50

Answer B is correct. Execution will result in completed tasks, development of team members and information gathering regarding costs and quality. So, Answers A, C and would not be correct. It can also result in change requests, but it does not have to.



PMP Exam Cram 2. Project Management Professional
PMP Exam Cram 2. Project Management Professional
ISBN: N/A
EAN: N/A
Year: 2003
Pages: 169

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