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| Question 1 | Answer B is correct. In a broadcast design, an application sends only one copy of each packet using a broadcast address. Answer A is incorrect. In a unicast design, one copy of each frame is sent to every client that requires the data. Answer C is incorrect. In a multicast design, a single copy of each frame is sent using a special address that allows each client to decide whether it wants to receive the frame. Finally, answer D is incorrect. Frames are sent in a broadcast design. |
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| Question 2 | Answer A is correct. Unicast transmissions involve the replications of frames for the specific clients that require the data. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. In a multicast, broadcast, or anycast design, packets do not require replication for transmission to multiple hosts. |
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| Question 3 | Answer D is correct. Multicast designs involve sending one copy of each packet, using a special address that allows each client to choose whether it receives the packet. Answer A is incorrect. Under multicast, packets are not replicated and sent to clients. Answer B is also incorrect. New packets are not sent per client requests. Also answer C is incorrect. Under multicast, a broadcast address is not used. |
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| Question 4 | Answer C is correct. Multicast MAC addresses begin with the prefix 01-00-5E. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. All the other MAC address examples here do not begin with 01-00-5E. |
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| Question 5 | Answer D is correct. Setting the TTL value to 1 ensures that the query message stays within the local subnetwork. Remember, routers decrement the TTL when they forward packets. Answer A is incorrect. A TTL of 1 ensures that all multicast routers do not see the message. Answer B is incorrect. Multicast routers will not forward the query message due to the TTL of 1. Answer C is also incorrect. This message is also not flooded by multicast routers. |
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| Question 6 | Answer C is correct. Addresses ranging from 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 are reserved for local purposes multicast routers do not forward datagrams destined for this range of addresses. Answer A is incorrect because 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 describes the entire range of Class D addresses. Answer B is incorrect because 192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.100 is not a valid multicast address range. Finally, answer D is incorrect because 234.0.0.0 to 234.0.0.255 is a valid multicast range, but it is not reserved. |
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| Question 7 | Answer C is correct. Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP) limits the forwarding of IP multicast packets to only those ports associated with IP multicast clients. Switches learn about multicast members from multicast route processors. Answers A and B are incorrect. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) versions 1 and 2 are protocols used by IPv4 systems to report IP multicast memberships to neighboring multicast routers. These are not Cisco proprietary protocols. Finally, answer D is incorrect as well. MCAST is not a valid protocol name. |
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| Question 8 | Answer C is correct. VSPAN refers to using a source VLAN for the SPAN configuration. You may monitor all the traffic leading into or coming from a VLAN. This is the easiest way to configure the requirement presented in this question. Answer A is incorrect. SPAN enables you to monitor port(s). Answer B is incorrect. Remote SPAN enables you to monitor ports from several switches. Finally, answer D is also incorrect. IGMP is a multicast protocol and has nothing to do with port monitoring. |
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| Question 9 | Answer A is correct. With this command, the FastEthernet 5/1 interface is configured as a SPAN source inbound and outbound traffic is monitored. Answer B is incorrect because this command does not configure a destination SPAN port. Answer C is incorrect because it does not configure both sources and destinations. Finally, answer D is incorrect because there is no such mode as switchport monitor mode. |
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| Question 10 | Answer E is correct. The NAM uses remote monitoring (RMON) to monitor and analyze network traffic. Answer A is incorrect. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a message control and error-reporting protocol between a host server and a gateway to the Internet. Answer B is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to move mail via the Internet. Answer C is incorrect. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is used to move files via the Internet. Answer D is incorrect. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is used to discover connected devices. |
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| Question 11 | Answer D is correct. This output is a result of the show redundancy states command. It displays the redundancy facility state information. Answer A is incorrect. The show redundancy command is not a valid command without parameters. Answer B is incorrect. The show redundancy counters command displays the redundancy facility counter information. Answer C is incorrect. The show redundancy switchover command displays the switchover counts, the uptime since active, and the total system uptime. |
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| Question 12 | Answer A is correct. RPR supports a switchover time of 2 to 4 minutes. Answer B is incorrect. RPR+ supports a switchover time of 30 to 60 seconds. Also, answers C and D are incorrect. HSRP and VRRP are not used for supervisor engine redundancy they're used for router redundancy for client systems. |
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| Question 13 | Answers A, B, C, and E are correct. You should protect your VTY ports to secure Telnet access. This includes assigning passwords and using ACLs. You should secure SNMP by prohibiting read/write access wherever possible. You must also secure access to the console port. Physical access to this port allows a user to circumvent all security mechanisms. You should also trim CDP by disabling the protocol on ports that connect to external users. Answer D is incorrect. To secure your system, you should disable the built-in HTTP server. |
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| Question 14 | Answer B is correct. Accounting services are a component of AAA. Security experts can use this information gained from this service to audit and improve security. Answer A is incorrect. Authorization provides the method for remote access control. Answer C is incorrect. Authentication provides the method of identifying users, including login and password information. Answer D is incorrect. Auditing is not one of the AAA services. |
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| Question 15 | Answer B is correct. The Maximum Value option allows the network administrator to define the maximum number of MAC addresses that can be supported by the port. Answer A is incorrect. The value has nothing to do with the duration of connections. Answers C and D are also incorrect. The value does not control the number of frames that may be received or sent. |
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| Question 16 | Answer C is correct. The switch is called the authenticator in the 802.1X security environment. Answer A is incorrect. The client is the workstation that requests access to the LAN. Answer B is incorrect. The authentication server performs the actual authentication. Answer D is incorrect. The workstation is the client in the 802.1X environment. |
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| Question 17 | Answer C is correct. When used with the show port-security command, the address parameter displays the MAC address table security information. Answer A is incorrect. show port-security displays security information for all interfaces. Answer B is also incorrect. The interface argument restricts the output to a specific interface. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such parameter as the MAC keyword. |
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| Question 18 | Answers A, B, and C are correct. Three VACL actions are permitted: Permit, Redirect, and Deny. Answer D is incorrect. There is no such VACL option as Log. Deny with logging is capable on the Cat 6500 only. |
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| Question 19 | Answer C is correct. A community port can communicate with other community ports and the promiscuous ports. Answer A is incorrect. The promiscuous port can communicate with all interfaces. Answer B is incorrect. An isolated port has complete Layer 2 separation from other ports except the promiscuous port. There is no port that features complete isolation as indicated in answer D. |
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| Question 20 | Answer C is correct. Network solutions allow enterprises to make business decisions about the business itself as well as about networks and the technologies and applications that run on them. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. Examples of network infrastructure components include devices such as routers, LAN switches, WAN switches, and PBXs. Intelligent network services include security, network management, quality of service, IP multicast, and high availability. Vertical solutions and markets include health care, retail, and financial services. |
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| Question 21 | Answers A, B, and C are correct. Cisco recommends caching systems, server load balancing, and server content routing in the distribution layer of the server farm. These are all possible with Cisco's Content Networking solutions. Answer D is incorrect. In a very large network, you should deploy multiple network devices. In smaller networks, a single device with redundant logical elements is appropriate. |
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| Question 22 | Answers A, B, and D are correct. When you're troubleshooting console port connectivity, you should make sure that you're using the correct type of cable. You should also ensure the terminal configuration matches the switch console port configuration. This is typically 9600 baud, 8 data bits, no parity, 1 stop bit. You should also make sure that the cable pinouts are correct for your supervisor engine. Answer C is incorrect. A console password does not need to be configured on the switch. |
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| Question 23 | Answers A, B, C, and E are correct. Through the division of the network into smaller broadcast domains, bandwidth is used more efficiently. VLANs improve security by segregating frames into smaller groups. Combined with routing, VLANs can be used to improve load balancing over multiple paths. VLANs also help to reduce the impact of network problems. Answer D is incorrect. VLANs do not directly improve the availability of network resources. |
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| Question 24 | Answer A is correct. To add the interface to the VLAN, use the switchport access vlan command. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. All other syntax examples here produce errors on the switch because they're invalid commands. |
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| Question 25 | Answer D is correct. The show interface gigabitEthernet 0/1 switchport command displays switch port information for the gigabitEthernet 0/1 interface. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. All other syntax examples here produce errors on the switch because they're invalid commands. |
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| Question 26 | Answer C is correct. The nonegotiate option can be used to force trunking, and prevents an interface from sending DTP frames. Answer A is incorrect. Access places an interface into nontrunking mode. Answer B is incorrect. Trunk does force trunking, but also sends DTP frames. Answer D is incorrect. Dynamic desirable sends DTP frames. Finally, answer E is incorrect because dynamic auto does not force trunking. |
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| Question 27 | Answers A and B are correct. A native VLAN is the VLAN that a port belongs to when not in operational trunking mode. Also, when in trunking mode, the port sends traffic from this VLAN untagged. Answers C and D are incorrect. The default native VLAN is VLAN 1. Each physical port does have a PVID value, but it is based on the native VLAN ID. |
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| Question 28 | Answers A, B, and D are correct. To troubleshoot a trunk link issue, you should ensure that the interface modes are properly configured; for example, dynamic desirable at one end and dynamic auto at the other. You should also ensure the trunk encapsulation type configured at each end is compatible. Finally, ensure that the native VLAN configuration matches at each end. Answer C is incorrect. The VTP configuration does not affect the trunk configuration. |
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| Question 29 | Answer D is correct. The configuration revision number is used to track VLAN changes. The configuration revision number in transparent mode is always 0. This ensures the device does not participate in VTP. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. The configuration revision number in transparent mode is always 0, and therefore cannot be any other value. |
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| Question 30 | Answer A is correct. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. Answer B is incorrect. VTP does not affect the number of VLAN advertisements that are sent. Answer C is incorrect. VTP does not eliminate the need for a configuration revision number. Finally, answer D is incorrect. VTP pruning does not affect the propagation of native VLAN frames. |
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| Question 31 | Answer C is correct. For VTP information to pass from switch to switch, the switches must be connected by trunks. Answer A is incorrect. It is recommended that you configure at least two switches in server mode. However, it is not recommended for all switches to be in such a configuration. Answer B is incorrect. All switches do not need to be VTP version 2 compatible. Finally, answer D is incorrect. Configuring all switches as clients is not a valid configuration. |
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| Question 32 | Answer C is correct. The default spanning tree priority value is 32,768. Answer A is incorrect. 4096 is the recommended root bridge priority value. Answer B is incorrect. 8192 is the recommended secondary root bridge priority value. Answer D is also incorrect. 0 is never recommended by Cisco. |
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| Question 33 | Answer D is correct. The Building Distribution block connects end users with the campus backbone and provides routing, QoS, and access control. Answer A is incorrect. The Building Access module contains end user workstations and IP phones. Answer B is incorrect. The Server Farm module contains email and other such servers. Answer C is incorrect. The Edge Distribution module aggregates the connectivity from the various elements at the enterprise edge and routes the traffic into the campus backbone. |
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| Question 34 | Answers C and E are correct. Inter-VLAN communication requires the use of a router or Layer 3 switch. This is due to inter-VLAN communications requiring routing. Answer A is incorrect. A hub is a Layer 1 device that is incapable of routing traffic. Answers B and D are incorrect. A Layer 2 switch also does not possess routing capabilities, nor does a translational bridge. |
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| Question 35 | Answer E is correct. The correct command to assign an access port to a VLAN is Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan vlan-id. Answers A, B, C, and D are incorrect. All other syntax examples in this question would produce a syntax error. |
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| Question 36 | Answer B is correct. ISL engages in true encapsulation. It places a new header and trailer on a frame prior to transporting the frame over a trunk link. Answer A is incorrect. 802.1Q tags frames with VLAN information it does not encapsulate the data frame. Answer C is incorrect. VTP is not a trunk protocol. Answer D is incorrect. 802.10 is used for the transmission of VLAN information in FFDI environments. Once again, true encapsulation is not used. |
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| Question 37 | Answers A, B, and E are correct. When troubleshooting STP, potential problems include duplex mismatch, unidirectional link failure, frame corruption, resource errors, PortFast configuration errors, and exceeding STP diameters. Answer C is incorrect. Broadcasts do not cause problems for STP; in fact, STP helps to ensure that broadcasts do not negatively impact the network. Also, answer D is incorrect. CAM table corruption also does not cause STP-related issues. |
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| Question 38 | Answers D and E are correct. Topology-based switching relies on a forwarding information base (FIB) and an adjacency table. Cisco's implementation of topology-based switching is called Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF). Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Route caching, flow-based switching, and demand-based switching are descriptions of legacy multilayer switching technologies that rely on packet flows for cached forwarding information. |
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| Question 39 | Answer B is correct. Punt adjacency deals with features that require special handling or features that are not yet supported. For example, if the packet requires CPU processing. Answer A is incorrect. A null adjacency refers to packets destined for the Null0 interface. These packets are dropped. Answer C is incorrect. The glean adjacency is used for the subnet prefix when more than one host is attached to the switch from the same VLAN. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such adjacency as the next-hop adjacency. |
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| Question 40 | Answer C is correct. RPR+ does not feature auto VLAN database configuration. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. RPR+ features many improvements over RPR. These include reduced convergence time, online insertion and removal of the redundant Supervisor Engine, synchronization of running configurations and startup configurations, and the synchronization of OIR events. |
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| Question 41 | Answer C is correct. IRDP uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) router advertisements and router solicitation messages to allow a host to discover the addresses of operational routers on the subnet. Hosts must discover routers before they can send IP datagrams outside their subnet. Router discovery allows a host to discover the addresses of operational routers on the subnet. Answer A is incorrect. HSRP is a routing protocol that provides backup to a router in the event of failure. Answer B is incorrect. The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) eliminates the single point of failure inherent in the static default routed environment. VRRP specifies an election protocol that dynamically assigns responsibility for a virtual router to one of the VPN Concentrators on a LAN. Answer D is incorrect. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP) networks by the interior gateway protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). |
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| Question 42 | Answer B is correct. The router in the group with the next highest priority takes over the active router role in an HSRP group. In this case, that router is RouterB. Answer A is incorrect. RouterA was the active router that failed. Answers C and D are also incorrect. RouterC does not have the highest remaining priority, and RouterD is not in the HSRP group where the failure occurred. Answer E is also incorrect. RouterB becomes the active router. |
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| Question 43 | Answer C is correct. When a router is in the standby state, the router is a candidate to become the next active router and sends periodic hello messages. There must be one standby router in the HSRP group. Answer A is incorrect. The initial state indicates that HSRP is not running. Answer B is incorrect. The listen state indicates the router is not the active or the standby router. Answer D is incorrect. The speak state indicates the router is participating in the election of the active router. Answer E is also incorrect. The active state indicates the router is the active router. |
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| Question 44 | Answer A is correct. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) can provide redundancy for a real IP address of a router or a virtual IP address shared among the VRRP group members. Answer B is incorrect. HSRP is a routing protocol that provides backup to a router in the event of failure. Answer C is incorrect. IRDP uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) router advertisements and router solicitation messages to allow a host to discover the addresses of operational routers on the subnet. Answer D is incorrect. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) protects data traffic from a failed router or circuit, like Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) and Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP), while allowing packet load sharing between a group of redundant routers. |
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| Question 45 | Answer C is correct. GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple, available gateways, and to provide automatic detection and failover to a redundant path in the event of failure to any active gateway. Answers A and B are incorrect. HSRP and VRRP both provide gateway resiliency. The standby members of the redundancy group are underutilized along with their upstream bandwidth. Answer D is also incorrect. Single router mode allows for redundancy of supervisor engines in a single switch chassis. |
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| Question 46 | Answer C is correct. To configure single router mode, you use the single-router-mode command in high availability configuration mode. Answers A and B are incorrect. The single-router-mode command produces a syntax error if attempted in another mode. Answer D is also incorrect. There is no such command as srm. |
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| Question 47 | Answer B is correct. You use the real command in server farm configuration mode to specify the IP address of a real server in the server farm. Answer A is incorrect. The real command is not a global configuration command. Answers C and D are incorrect. The ip slb serverfarm command creates a server farm definition and enters server farm configuration mode. |
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| Question 48 | Answer D is correct. The advantage that auxiliary VLANs bring for voice traffic is increased network segmentation and control. Answer A is incorrect. Auxiliary VLANs by themselves do not increase availability. Answer B is incorrect. They increase the amount of network management that must be performed. Answer C is incorrect. They also do not reduce the bandwidth that is consumed due to voice. |
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| Question 49 | Answer C is correct. Reliability is not directly impacted by QoS. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. As Cisco defines QoS, it addresses delay, jitter (variable delay), and packet loss. |
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| Question 50 | Answer D is correct. Low latency queuing provides strict priority queuing. This feature enables you to configure the priority status for a class within class-based weighted fair queuing. Answer A is incorrect. CQ allows a fairness not provided with priority queuing (PQ). With CQ, you can control the available bandwidth on an interface when it is unable to accommodate the aggregate traffic that is enqueued. Answer B is incorrect. PQ ensures that important traffic gets the fastest handling at each point where it is used. It was designed to give strict priority to important traffic. Answer C is incorrect. First In, First Out (FIFO) queuing packets are forwarded in the same order in which they arrive at the interface. Answer E is incorrect. WFQ is one of Cisco's premier queuing techniques. It is a flow-based queuing algorithm that does two things simultaneously: It schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining bandwidth between high-bandwidth flows. Finally, Answer F is incorrect. WRR provides bandwidth to higher priority applications (using IP precedence) and also grants access to lower-priority queues. The frame schedule affords each queue the bandwidth allotted to it by the network administrator. This mapping is configurable both at the system and interface levels. |
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| Question 51 | Answer C is correct. The ToS field in an IP packet is used to assign a priority to the packet. Answer A is incorrect. The ToS field does not identify the type of payload it indicates priority. Answers B and D are also incorrect. It neither identifies network control information, nor indicates a particular queue. |
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| Question 52 | Answer C is correct. Link fragmentation and interleaving is appropriate for slow links links with a bandwidth of less than 768 Kbps. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. LFI is not appropriate for high-speed links. Cisco considers slow-speed links to be less than 768 Kbps. |
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| Question 53 | Answer B is correct. Weighted Random Early Detection uses IP precedence or DSCP values to selectively drop packets. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect. WRED uses IP precedence or DSCP to selectively drop packets it uses no other mechanism for this determination. |
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| Question 54 | Answer B is correct. To display priority queuing output, use the debug priority Privilege EXEC command. Answer A is incorrect. Use the debug ip rsvp command to enable logging of significant Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) events. Answer C is incorrect. There is no such command as debug multilink ppp. Answer D is also incorrect. Use the debug ppp multilink fragments command to display information about individual multilink fragments and important multilink events. |
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| Question 55 | Answer C is correct. The service-policy command is used to apply a policy to a particular interface. Answer A is incorrect. The class-map command is used to identify traffic. Answer B is incorrect. The policy-map command is used to define the behavior of the traffic. Answer D is incorrect. Use the mls qos global configuration command to enable quality of service (QoS) for the entire switch. Finally, answer E is incorrect. Use the mls qos trust interface configuration command to configure the port trust state. |
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| Question 56 | Answer C is correct. The Network Analysis Module (NAM) provides monitoring functions for your 6000/6500 Series Catalyst switch. Answer A is incorrect. The FlexWAN module provides T1 WAN interfaces for distribution layer capabilities. Answer B is incorrect. The IDS sensor adds security monitoring. Answer D is incorrect. The Supervisor Engine is the required "brains" of the 6000/6500 Series switch. |
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| Question 57 | Answer A is correct. The appropriate command to monitor ingress traffic for a SPAN session is monitor session 1 source interface fastethernet 5/1 rx. This command monitors traffic inbound on the Fast Ethernet interface 5/1. Answer B is incorrect. The command monitor session 1 source interface fastethernet 5/1 tx monitors traffic on the Fast Ethernet interface, but monitors only traffic that is transmitted. Answer C is incorrect. monitor session 1 destination interface fastethernet 5/1 configures a SPAN destination interface, not a SPAN source interface. Finally, answer D is incorrect. monitor session 1 source interface fastethernet 5/1 monitors the Fast Ethernet interface for both ingress and egress traffic. |
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| Question 58 | Answer D is correct. The aaa new-model command enables AAA globally on the switch. Answer A is incorrect. The aaa authentication login command creates a new authentication list. Answer B is incorrect. The ppp authorization command applies a names authorization list to an interface. Answer C is also incorrect. There is no such command as new aaa model. |
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| Question 59 | Answer C is correct. To cause a port to enter the error-disable state with port security, you must use the shutdown keyword. Answer A is incorrect. The protect keyword causes packets with unknown source addresses to be dropped until a sufficient number of MAC addresses are removed. Answer B is incorrect. With the restrict option, data is restricted and the SecurityViolation counter increments. Answer D is incorrect. There is no such option as the null option. |
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| Question 60 | Answer A is correct. With no encapsulation, this Metro Ethernet tunneling option does not scale well. It is sometimes efficient to support a network of a single enterprise. Answer B is incorrect. Tag stacking provides isolation of enterprise traffic through the service provider. Answers C and D are incorrect. Ethernet over multiprotocol label switching is a scalable tunneling mechanism that maps VLANs through an MPLS core. |
