Taking the Test

Relax. Once you're sitting in front of the testing computer, there's nothing more you can do to increase your knowledge or preparation. Take a deep breath, stretch, and start reading that first question.

You don't need to rush, either. You have plenty of time to complete each question. Both easy and difficult questions are intermixed throughout the test in random order. Don't cheat yourself by spending too much time on a hard question early in the test, thereby depriving yourself of the time you need to answer the questions at the end of the test.

Set a maximum time limit for questions, and watch your time on long or complex questions. If you hit your limit, it's time to guess and move on. Don't deprive yourself of the opportunity to see more questions by taking too long to puzzle over questions, unless you think you can figure out the answer. Otherwise, you're limiting your opportunities to pass.

That's it for pointers. Here are some questions for you to practice on. Good luck!

Question 1

What function does the channel service unit/data service unit (CSU/DSU) have?

  • A. It identifies interesting traffic patterns.

  • B. It translates between data signaling methods.

  • C. It encapsulates network protocol packets.

  • D. It modulates digital signals to analog signals.

Question 2

Standards that define the data terminal equipment-to-data communications equipment (DTE-to-DCE) interface and signaling include the following: (Choose three.)

  • A. RS-232

  • B. V.90

  • C. V.35

  • D. HSSI

Question 3

The RTS and CTS signals in an EIA/TIA-232 standard cable are used for what function?

  • A. Hardware flow control

  • B. Modem control

  • C. Data transfer

  • D. Rate Selection

Question 4

Which modem modulation standard provides a transfer rate of 56Kbps?

  • A. v.22

  • B. v.32bis

  • C. v.34

  • D. v.90

  • E. v.34bis

Question 5

Which of the following compression algorithms do high-speed modems commonly use? (Choose two.)

  • A. v.42bis

  • B. v.42

  • C. Microcom Networking Protocol 5 (MNP5)

  • D. Microcom Networking Protocol 4 (MNP4)

  • E. v.32bis

  • F. Link Access Procedure for Modems (LAPM)

Question 6

You connect to an access server and you need to make a configuration change to an attached modem. What action do you take?

  • A. Reverse Telnet to the modem.

  • B. Telnet to the attached modem.

  • C. Access interface configuration mode.

  • D. Attach to the modem console port.

Question 7

What must you do to allow an asynchronous line to support Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)?

  • A. Use the dialer in-band command.

  • B. Use the physical-layer async command.

  • C. Use the async mode dedicated command.

  • D. You cannot use an asynchronous line for DDR.

Question 8

Which of the following can you configure for asynchronous operation for a modem to use?

  • A. TTY

  • B. AUX

  • C. Console port

  • D. VTY

Question 9

Which of the following statements are true about a dialer list?

  • A. Defines traffic that will initiate a call

  • B. Must be configured when implementing DDR

  • C. Contains the phone numbers of remote dial-up hosts

  • D. Links to a configured dialer group

Question 10

A technician will be connecting a new usr_sportster modem to the access server in the evening. You want to configure the access server now so that it automatically configures the modem with the necessary initialization strings when the technician connects the modem in the evening. Which two options can you use to configure this modem?

  • A. Reverse Telnet

  • B. Auto discovery by router

  • C. Console port

  • D. Predefined initialization string

Question 11

When configuring a modem connected to a TTY line, what is an important reason for completing the line configuration before proceeding to configure the modem-specific parameters?

  • A. You cannot set line parameters once the modem is initialized.

  • B. To enable reverse telnet support to the attached modem.

  • C. You cannot initialize the modem until line parameters are set.

  • D. To configure the modem autoconfigure type command.

Question 12

Which of the following are true about queuing as supported by the Cisco IOS version 12.0 or later? (Choose two.)

  • A. A serial E1 interface uses FIFO queuing by default.

  • B. Prioritization is especially useful on WAN links with a constant traffic flow.

  • C. There are four supported methods of queuing.

  • D. You can apply only one type of queuing per interface.

Question 13

Your branch office uses a relatively slow WAN link to the central office. The traffic that is exchanged is not particularly sensitive to delay, but sometimes the link becomes congested due to larger file transfers or bandwidth-hogging applications.

You want to prioritize traffic in such a way that the lower-volume traffic flows will have priority over large traffic flows, such as the file transfers with the least amount of configuration. What do you configure?

  • A. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)

  • B. Custom queuing (CQ)

  • C. Priority queuing (PQ)

  • D. FIFO queuing

Question 14

If a traffic queuing method requires the traffic flows to be reordered, which of the following must you use?

  • A. WFQ

  • B. CQ

  • C. PQ

  • D. FIFO queuing

Question 15

What command do you use to enable WFQ?

  • A. router(config)#fair-queue 256

  • B. router(config)#weighted-fair-queue 256

  • C. router(config-if)#weighted-fair-queue 256

  • D. router(config-if)#fair-queue 256

Question 16

An interface using priority queuing

  • A. Uses low-, normal-, medium-, and high-priority output queues

  • B. Should be implemented on interfaces of E1 (2.048Mbps) or greater

  • C. Ensures all queues are serviced even when an interface receives a large volume of higher-priority traffic

  • D. Empties queues in order from high to low priority

Question 17

Priority queuing can be based on which of the following criteria?

  • A. Access list

  • B. Protocol type

  • C. Packet size

  • D. Incoming interface

Question 18

Which of the following security protocols are supported by the Cisco IOS?

  • A. Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

  • B. Kerberos

  • C. Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA)

  • D. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Question 19

What type of scenario would require the use of Kerberos over TACACS+ or RADIUS with AAA?

  • A. If centralized user validation is required

  • B. If a client/system must be used for AAA

  • C. If authentication must use the Data Encryption Standard (DES) algorithm

  • D. If the user database is stored on a UNIX system

Question 20

Which of the Cisco IOS supported AAA security protocols does not provide the authorization or accounting component of AAA?

  • A. Kerberos

  • B. RADIUS

  • C. TACACS+

  • D. They all provide authorization and accounting.

Question 21

Which of the following characteristics is true regarding the TACACS+ security protocol?

  • A. Uses secret-key authentication

  • B. Is a Cisco-proprietary protocol

  • C. Makes use of User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

  • D. Supports all AAA features

Question 22

What command do you use to enable AAA on a Cisco access server?

  • A. aaa enable

  • B. aaa new-model

  • C. aaa authentication

  • D. aaa client

Question 23

Which of the following include authentication types handled by AAA?

  • A. Console terminal access

  • B. PPP authentication requests

  • C. Virtual terminal line login

  • D. Privileged EXEC mode access

Question 24

Network address translation (NAT) has which of the following characteristics?

  • A. Decreases the packet forwarding delay

  • B. Modifies the addresses in IP packet headers

  • C. Allows the use of private addressing schemes

  • D. Adds to the depletion of the IP address supply

Question 25

The process of manually mapping a specific inside local address to a predetermined outside global address is best described as

  • A. Dynamic translation

  • B. Static translation

  • C. Port address translation (PAT)

  • D. Fixed translation

Question 26

PAT is often referred to as

  • A. One-to-one NAT

  • B. Many-to-one NAT

  • C. One-to-many NAT

  • D. Many-to-many NAT

Question 27

Ethernet 0/0 connects the NAT router to the internal network. What must you do to have this interface participate in NAT operation?

  • A. Issue the ip nat inside source list command.

  • B. Issue the ip nat inside command.

  • C. Issue the ip nat pool command.

  • D. Issue the ip nat outside command.

Question 28

You need to clear all mappings in the translation table of your router running dynamic NAT. What command would you use?

  • A. clear nat table

  • B. clear ip nat translation all

  • C. clear ip nat translation *

  • D. clear nat translation table

Question 29

Which of the options provided is not a characteristic of Frame Relay?

  • A. Provides a very high level of reliability

  • B. Lacks sequencing and windowing mechanisms

  • C. Ranges from 56Kbps to 2Mbps in throughput

  • D. Uses packet-switching technology

Question 30

The Frame Relay WAN consists of two main categories of devices. Which category of device is generally found on the customer's premises?

  • A. DLCI

  • B. DCE

  • C. CPE

  • D. DTE

Question 31

Which of the following commands configures Frame Relay subinterface number 15 on your router's Serial 2 interface?

  • A. Router(config)#subinterface s2.15 point-to-point

  • B. Router(config-if)#interface s2.15 multipoint

  • C. Router(config-if)#interface s2.15 point-to-multipoint

  • D. Router(config-subif)#interface s2.15

Question 32

Which is not a valid state of a Frame Relay permanent virtual circuit (PVC)?

  • A. Deleted

  • B. Active

  • C. Inactive

  • D. Standby

Question 33

The signaling standard used between the customer's equipment and the service provider's Frame Relay switch is the Local Management Interface (LMI). What are the three Frame Relay LMI types?

  • A. ansi

  • B. ietf

  • C. cisco

  • D. q933a

Question 34

Which of the following events initiates dial backup?

  • A. The primary line interface receives interesting traffic.

  • B. The traffic load on the primary link exceeds a set limit.

  • C. The interface of the primary link is detected to be down.

  • D. Priority queuing is configured on the secondary link.

Question 35

Which command do you use to set the amount of time the router waits before bringing up a backup interface?

  • A. backup timer

  • B. backup delay

  • C. dialer backup delay

  • D. backup interface delay

Question 36

You issue the show interface dialer command on a router that uses a primary Frame Relay serial link and a dial backup interface that is currently not activated. What appears in the backup interface output?

  • A. Dialer0 is inactive mode, line protocol is down.

  • B. Dialer0 is standby mode, line protocol is down.

  • C. Dialer0 is standby mode, line protocol is up.

  • D. Dialer0 is inactive mode, line protocol is up.

Question 37

The primary use of a backup interface is for

  • A. Increased bandwidth

  • B. Multilink bundling

  • C. Link redundancy

  • D. Load sharing

Question 38

Which of the following is commonly used for backup links?

  • A. ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

  • B. Modem

  • C. T3 line

  • D. Frame Relay

Question 39

Which of the following primary lines can experience failure without initiating the backup link?

  • A. ISDN BRI

  • B. Async lines

  • C. Multipoint Frame Relay interface

  • D. Point-to-point Frame Relay subinterfaces

Question 40

You have configured a dialer list, which references a predefined access list. How do you configure the appropriate interface to use this dialer list for initiating DDR calls?

  • A. Using the dialer pool command

  • B. Using the dialer-list command

  • C. Using the dialer-group command

  • D. Using the dialer map command

Question 41

The main purpose of DDR is to establish a connection on an as-needed basis. Once all of the information is exchanged, the connection is again dropped. What event triggers DDR to establish a connection?

  • A. Routing protocol updates

  • B. Router keepalive messages

  • C. Predefined interesting traffic

  • D. Time-sensitive protocols

Question 42

How do you define when a DDR connection is brought down once there is no more interesting traffic?

  • A. dialer idle-timeout

  • B. dialer load-threshold

  • C. dialer fast-idle

  • D. dialer idle-timer

Question 43

What happens to uninteresting traffic that is received on a DDR dialer interface that is already connected?

  • A. The traffic causes the connection to be brought down.

  • B. The traffic is dropped at the dialer interface.

  • C. The traffic is sent and the idle timer is reset.

  • D. The traffic is transmitted across the DDR connection.

Question 44

An IP RIP site uses DDR to establish an ISDN connection to a remote site. Routes learned by RIP frequently disappear from the routing table. What can you use to maintain dynamic routing table entries while minimizing the use of the DDR link by routing updates?

  • A. Static route entries

  • B. Snapshot routing

  • C. Keepalive spoofing

  • D. Bandwidth-on-demand

Question 45

Multilink PPP (MLP) provides load balancing over multiple connections. Which of the following statements is false regarding MLP?

  • A. Multiple links are brought up in response to a defined load threshold.

  • B. You configure load thresholds using the dialer load-threshold command.

  • C. The load value is expressed as a link utilization percentage ranging from 1 to 100.

  • D. Load thresholds can be determined for inbound, outbound, or either direction.

Question 46

ISDN services can be in the form of a BRI or Primary Rate Interface (PRI). Identify the statement that is not a characteristic of ISDN service.

  • A. ISDN PRI E1 offers 30 B-channels.

  • B. ISDN BRI B-channels operate at 64Kbps.

  • C. ISDN PRI D-channels operate at 16Kbps.

  • D. ISDN PRI T1 offers 1.544Mbps throughput.

Question 47

You can view ISDN BRI call setup and network connection teardown messages using which command?

  • A. debug dialer

  • B. debug isdn q921

  • C. debug isdn q931

  • D. debug isdn events

Question 48

The ISDN BRI consists of a number of components and reference points. What is the abbreviation for the interface between an NT2 device and subscriber equipment TA devices?

  • A. U

  • B. R

  • C. S

  • D. T

Question 49

Which of the following commands is unique in that you can apply it at both the global and ISDN interface configuration mode?

  • A. encapsulation ppp

  • B. isdn switch-type

  • C. isdn spid1

  • D. dialer map

Question 50

A Cisco router is configured with a serial point-to-point link to a remote office. If the default encapsulation was used, what protocol is being used on this serial interface?

  • A. High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)

  • B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

  • C. Link Access Procedure, Balanced (LAPB)

  • D. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)

Question 51

Which Cisco IOS feature can you use to replace the static configuration of physical interfaces, such as the mapping of a remote host to a destination IP address and ISDN number?

  • A. Dialer map

  • B. DDR

  • C. Rotary groups

  • D. Dialer profiles

Question 52

What responsibility does the PPP Network Control Protocol (NCP) handle?

  • A. Establishes and configures the link

  • B. Negotiates the PPP link options

  • C. Configures network-layer protocols

  • D. Sets authentication mechanism

Question 53

What is the effect of the ppp callback accepts command?

  • A. Configures an interface to request PPP callback

  • B. Configures an interface to accept PPP callback requests

  • C. Configures an interface as a dialer map class member

  • D. Configures an interface to use callback security

Question 54

You can verify a successful Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) authentication event using which command?

  • A. debug ppp negotiation

  • B. show dialer

  • C. debug ppp packet

  • D. show caller

Question 55

Which of the following are characteristics of MLP?

  • A. Allows the bundling of multiple physical links

  • B. Transmits fragments over multiple parallel links

  • C. Reassembles packets at the opposite end of the link

  • D. Improves throughput and decreases latency

Question 56

You want to allow PPP users to automatically start a PPP session when dialing in on a line. What Cisco IOS command do you use to allow it to take place?

  • A. modem dialin

  • B. ppp session-default

  • C. autoselect ppp

  • D. ppp authentication chap dialins

Question 57

Virtual private network (VPN) connectivity provides

  • A. Faster transmission of traffic

  • B. Tunneling for multiple protocols

  • C. Increased network complexity

  • D. Access to a corporate extranet

Question 58

Of the Cisco IOS supported VPN encapsulation protocols, which are predominantly used for remote-access VPNs and rely on the PPP?

  • A. IPSec

  • B. PPTP

  • C. GRE

  • D. L2TP

Question 59

Which of the VPN tunneling protocols do not provide data encryption for the secure tunnel? (Choose two.)

  • A. IPSec

  • B. GRE

  • C. L2TP

  • D. PPTP

Question 60

Which of the following statements are true about an IPSec tunnel that uses Internet Key Exchange (IKE)? (Choose two.)

  • A. Transfers interesting traffic as it is received

  • B. Negotiates a set of security associations (SAs)

  • C. Uses authenticated key exchange technology

  • D. Uses authentication but not encryption

Question 61

DSL uses Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) as its Layer 2 protocol. Which of the following are valid encapsulation methods used to carry IP packets over the DSL/ATM connection? (Choose all correct answers.)

  • A. Point-to-Point over Ethernet (PPPoE)

  • B. Point-to-Point Protocol over ATM (PPPoA)

  • C. RFC 1483 bridging

  • D. Voice over IP (VoIP)

Question 62

Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) are able to coexist for which of the following reasons? (Choose two.)

  • A. The implementation of bridge taps at the central office (CO)

  • B. The use of microfilters at the customer site

  • C. The use of frequency ranges that do not overlap

  • D. The separation of the signal by the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM)

Question 63

You are using a DSL modem and have a downstream rate of 6.1Mbps and an upstream bandwidth of 640Kbps. What type of DSL are you subscribed to?

  • A. ADSL

  • B. High-data rate DSL (HDSL)

  • C. Single-line DSL (SDSL)

  • D. Very-high-data-rate DSL (VDSL)

Question 64

Which characteristic do HDSL and SDSL have in common?

  • A. The use of two copper twisted pairs

  • B. Equal upstream and downstream capacity

  • C. Used as alternative to T1 or E1 connections

  • D. Deliver more downstream than upstream capacity

Question 65

A telecommuter must connect to the corporate network once a day for a couple of hours to transfer several large files. What connection method would you recommend for the remote user?

  • A. Dial-up modem

  • B. ISDN PRI

  • C. ISDN BRI

  • D. Leased T1 line




CCNP BCRAN Remote Access Exam Cram 2 (Exam Cram 640 - XXX)
CCNP BCRAN Remote Access Exam Cram 2 (Exam Cram 640 - XXX)
ISBN: N/A
EAN: N/A
Year: 2003
Pages: 183

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