Project Execution

Table of contents:

Answers and Explanations

A1:

Answer D is correct because staff acquisition is not part of the Project Management executing processes. Staff acquisition is one of the Project Management planning facilitating processes. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because all of these processes are included in the Project Management executing processes.

A2:

Answer A is correct. Answer B is incorrect because the project notebook is a repository for the documents associated with the project and notes used to execute the project. Answer C is incorrect because the scope document is not used to execute the project and it is developed before the executing phase of the project. Answer D is incorrect because a company's organizational policy is not used to execute the project.

A3:

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because budgets are not inputs into the project plan; however, they should be considered during the planning phase of a project. Answers C and D are incorrect because training plans and skills analysis are not inputs into the project plan execution process.

A4:

Answer C is correct because general management skills are one of the six tools and techniques that are utilized during the execution phase of a project. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not execution tools and techniques for a project.

A5:

Answer A is correct. A Project Management Information System (PMIS) is comprised of techniques and tools that are utilized to gather, integrate, and distribute the outputs of the project processes. Answer B is incorrect because a work breakdown structure (WBS) is used for the decomposition of tasks into work packets and not the distribution of outputs. Answer C is incorrect because earned value management (EVM) is a technique that is used to measure and report project performance throughout the entire project life cycle and is an input into the PMIS distribution process. Answer D is incorrect because the budget at completion (BAC) is a financial tool that is also an input into the information system.

A6:

Answer D is the best answer. Answer A is incorrectalthough a change control management system can be used to manage a project and get it back in-line, it is not an input into the project execution processes. Answer B is incorrect because the communication plan is a tool that is the output of the planning phase of a project. Answer C is incorrect because the status reports are communication deliverables and do not directly affect the ability to bring the project back in-line. The status report advises the team about the steps to bring the project in-line and updates the stakeholders about the progress, action items, and timeline.

A7:

Answer D is correct. Project plans are used by the entire project team and help to communicate the tasks needed during the project time frame. Project plans are distributed to the project staff according to the communication plan. Consequently, a project plan is formal and approved. Answers A, B, and C are true statements and therefore incorrect answers.

A8:

Answer C is correct. Although some ad hoc communications and information requests are handled during the project execution, decisions on when, how, and with whom to communicate are defined in the planning phase of a communication plan. Answers A, B, and D are true statements and therefore incorrect answers.

A9:

Answer A is correct. Flowcharts, fishbone, and Ishikawa diagrams are all examples of root cause analysis techniques that might be effective when trying to determine why an event occurred and how it can be mitigated in the future. Because all of these techniques are applicable to this situation, Answer A is correct because Microsoft Excel spreadsheets would not likely be used as a root cause analysis tool but the other answers could be used for the analysis. Answers B, C, and D are correct answers and therefore incorrect responses to this question.

A10:

Answer B is the best answer. Organizational procedures and product skill/knowledge are the only two project execution tools and techniques that are listed. Therefore, Answers A and D are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because product skill and knowledge involves how well you know your product and would not likely have an impact upon your ability to move through an organization quicker. Organizational procedures is the correct answer because a project manager should be aware and anticipate responses to organizational procedures because they are seen as constraints for the project and should be identified earlier in the project.

A11:

Answer D is correct. Autonomy is not one of the objectives of systems integration. Consequently, Answers A, B, and C are correct and therefore incorrect for this question. Answer A is incorrect because performance is what the system does. Answer B is incorrect because this objective is linked with the achievement of the desired performance in an optimal manner.

A12:

Answer D is correct. Forward pass calculations are generally not required parts of the project plan; however, they are valuable to the project manager as he develops the estimates for various tasks. Answers A, B, and C are elements that should be part of the project plan. A good project plan is more than just a Gantt chart and Microsoft spreadsheet.

A13:

Answer C is correct because project timelines are not associated with linear responsibility charts (also known as a responsibility assignment matrix). Answers A, B, and D are correct because they can be used for these purposes. Therefore, they are incorrect answers to this question.

A14:

Answer A is correct. The work authorization system (WAS) is the mechanism that triggers the work to be done and is a catalyst for pushing the project forward. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not triggers for the project processes to go forward.

A15:

Answer D is correct. Answers A and B are incorrect because, although some projects might have tasks that can be monitored monthly or weekly and depend on the project itself, the best answer per the PMBOK is continuously, so that a project manager can ensure budget adherence and timeliness of the project. Answer C is incorrect because a project plan is a "living" document and as such is modified often to reflect change within the project.

A16:

Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because quality measurement is a method of monitoring quality without the follow-through that is associated with quality assurance. Answer C is incorrect because the monitoring of variances is not a specific answer that provides actions to fulfill the requirements. Answer D is incorrect because the triple constraints (scope, time, and budget) are attributes that are associated with the project and are not actions involved with making sure that everything is done.

A17:

Answer A is correct. Answer B is incorrect because a budget decrease would have to go through the change request process to impact the project. Otherwise, it has an indirect impact upon the work results. Answers C and D are incorrect because any execution output or GNP increase would not have a direct impact upon the project. They might have an indirect impact and require a change request if they can impact the project in some way.

A18:

Answer C is the best answer. The costs of nonconformance to quality standards tends to increase over time; therefore, the project manager should adhere to the quality conformance requirements of the project from the onset. Answer A is incorrect because the team should not make the final decision without determining the long-term implications while focusing on quality. Answer B is incorrect because a risk mitigation plan would not give you the flexibility to postpone nonconformance. Answer D is incorrect because auditing the project is a quality control technique for the project.

A19:

Answer D is correct. Answer A is a true statement, but it isn't the best answer and is therefore incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because both quality planning and quality assurance use the same tools and techniques. Answer C is the definition of quality, not quality planning or quality assurance, and is therefore incorrect for this question.

A20:

Answer D is the correct answer. Quality improvement involves any actions taken to improve the quality of the project in response to quality deficiencies or irregularities. Answer A is incorrect because a variance in performance is not an output to the Project Management processes. Answer B is incorrect because a change control document is affiliated with the change control management system and is an output of that tool. Answer C is incorrect because rebaselining the project plan would not be tied with quality assurance except that the project manager must calculate the time requirements that are needed for quality planning and assurance.

A21:

Answer A is the correct answer. Training is a tool and technique of team development, not an input to team development. Answers B, C, and D are all inputs to team development along with the project plan with the staffing management plan.

A22:

Answer B is the correct answer. The conflict that a team member feels when he reports to multiple people can be frustrating because he might have confusion as to whom he should provide support. Answer A is correct; however, it is not the best answer for this question. Answer C is incorrect because conflict resolution is the process that a person would go through in order to resolve this confusion about the dual reporting aspect of the project. Answer D is incorrect because portfolio Project Management is involved with the financial aspects of a project and is not associated with team member conflict.

A23:

Answer B is correct. Answers A, C, and D are Project Management quality assurance tools and techniques that are used during the execution phase of a project. Therefore, they are incorrect answers to this question.

A24:

Answer A is correct. Co-location and a projectized environment is the best situation for a project team. Although Answer B can work effectively, team members with other functional duties will have conflicts of priorities. Therefore, Answer B is incorrect. Answer C is the definition of subject matter experts; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer D is tricky because offsite team building is often encouraged in team literature. However, it's not the best answer and is therefore incorrect.

A25:

Answer C is correct. Lessons learned are important outputs of projects and can be used for historical data and to provide assistance for other projects. Answer A is incorrect because team building involves the activities that develop camaraderie in order to enhance team performance. Answer B is incorrect because best practices are those successful activities that a team wants to repeat in current or future projects. Answer D is incorrect because it is a fictitious term that is not related to Project Management.

A26:

Answer B is the best answer. Team development is important because it encourages people to participate well with others. Team development is a perpetual activity that an effective project manager must perform in order to develop cohesiveness within the team. Answer A is incorrect because team development does not force people to get along with each other, but it provides opportunities for team members to interact and potentially develop good working relationships. Answer C is incorrect because the purpose of team development is work related, although these relationships can lead to friendships outside of work. Answer D is incorrect because team development does not always extend over the duration of the project.

A27:

Answer B is the best answer. Reward systems do not generally work for a project because a project manager might not report to her functional manager and receive the positive rewards that are usually associated with employment. Answer A is incorrect because traditional reward systems do not generally work due to the reporting structure that is inherent within a functional organization. Answer C is incorrect because an autocratic work environment does not typically work well with projects and, frequently, the reward system is the only positive reinforcement that a team member receives from an autocratic type of manager. Answer D is correct; however, it is not the best answer to this question.

A28:

Answer A is correct. Involving the team in the planning of the project helps all members develop a better understanding of the project and helps to provide buy-in. Having a barbeque can be a team-building technique, but it isn't the best one. Therefore, Answer B is incorrect. Lessons-learned sessions are typically done at the end of phases or the end of a project. These can become team-building events by airing difficulties, but they are intended to correct project direction, not to build the team. Therefore, Answer C is incorrect. Allowing individuals to operate independently is a good management technique in general; however, without supervision or project control, it could actually cause team problems. Therefore, Answer D is incorrect.

A29:

Answer D is correct. "Borrowed" legitimate power that is transferred from a formal leader to a project manager is one source of influence for a project manager as he moves the project forward. Answer A is incorrect because expert power is based upon a person's knowledge or expertise. Answer B is incorrect because coercive power is based upon intimidation or use of force to push one's issue or decision. Answer C is incorrect because reward power is based upon the ability to provide or withhold rewards to or from a participant. Project managers are generally not involved with the distribution of rewards within an organization, although it is a good idea to provide some type of reward or reinforcement to a team, especially upon successful completion of a project.

A30:

Answer B is correct. Project information is important so that stakeholders and sponsors understand how well a project is meeting its goals. For sponsors, a project behind schedule might call for some type of intervention. Answer A is incorrect because, although it is important to create a project archive, it is not the purpose of distributing the information. Answer C is incorrect because project sponsorship should be resolved prior to project initiation. Occasionally, a project is canceled because it no longer meets the needs of the sponsors or company, but distributing the project information is not intended to keep sponsorship of the project. Answer D is incorrect because conflicts need to be managed by the project manager and resolved apart from reporting on the project.

A31:

Answer B is the correct answer. Coercive power is based upon the ability to use force or intimidation to push one's issues or decisions. Answer A is incorrect because legitimate power is power by formal authority or by functional title. Answer C is incorrect because reward power is based on the ability to provide or withhold rewards to or from a participant. Answer D is incorrect because referent power is borrowed, legitimate power that is transferred from a formal leader to a project manager.

A32:

Answer C is the best answer. Collocation occurs when team members are physically located within a close proximity of each other, which enhances communication, focus, and emphasis on project completion. Answers A, B, and D may be correct to some degree, but the concept of collocation is emphasized in the PMBOK.

A33:

Answer A is the correct answer. Quality assurance is not associated with team development. Answers B, C, and D are outputs to team development. Answers C and D are both types of performance improvements, which is an output to team development.

A34:

Answer B is the correct answer. Managers frequently use rewards and recognition in the workplace and understand the importance of providing positive feedback to their teams and stakeholders. Answer A is incorrect because 360-degree feedback is provided for employees during the evaluation process, and the output of these sessions can lead to rewards. Answer C is incorrect because rewards tend to have a stronger and longer lasting effect on reinforcing behavior than peer evaluations. Answer D is incorrect because it is not the exact definition in the PMBOK for the reward and recognition systems; however, team celebrations are a vital tool to reward your team for its participation on the project.

A35:

Answer D is correct. Confronting an issue is a technique that some project managers utilize to develop the best solution to a problem or issue. Answer A is incorrect because buy-in is more of a process of soliciting feedback and making a decision based upon the feedback. Answer B is incorrect because negotiation is the process that is used whenever you are trying to find a middle ground for mutual acceptance during the decision-making process. Answer C is incorrect because the fact finding does not generally involve a situation in which a win-win decision would need to be made concerning an issue.

A36:

Answer B is the correct answer. The conflict is downplayed for the time being until it reappears at a later time. This is a lose-lose resolution technique because the conflict does not get resolved or have closure. Answer A is incorrect; a contingency plan is involved with the planning and execution of the project as you look at the options that you have for your decision-making process. Answer C is correct; however, it is not the best response to this question. Procrastination makes your project planning and execution a challenging and awkward experience. Answer D is incorrect because project execution is not a smoothing technique.

A37:

Answer A is the correct answer. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is a pyramid of hierarchical needs, from basic physical needs to self-actualization. Answer B is incorrect because Maslow's Hierarchy is not associated with the royal family. Answer C is correct as one of the steps of Maslow's Hierarchy; however, it does not answer this question as well as Answer A. Answer D is incorrect because Maslow's Hierarchy is not related to Deming's Total Quality Management System that he successfully brought to cultures outside of the United States.

A38:

Answer B is the correct answer. The ability to get promoted and learn new skills are both examples of hygiene factors that contribute to why people enjoy their jobs and are motivated. Answers A and C are incorrect because they are McGregor's theories that are related to people's work ethic and approach to their job. Answer D is incorrect because the Hawthorne Effect is related to the increased productivity levels of workers that is correlated to the opportunity to provide feedback to management about working conditions.

A39:

Answer A is correct. This hierarchy is seen as a pyramid with the first level, physical needs, at the base of the pyramid. Answer B is incorrect because self-esteem is the fourth level of the pyramid. Answer C is incorrect because self-actualization is the fifth level of the pyramid. Answer D is incorrect because it is on the second level of the pyramid with security.

A40:

Answer C is correct. Motivators help provide job satisfaction, and hygiene factors are job attributes that help prevent job dissatisfaction. The necessity to keep your team satisfied is an important part of maintaining good productivity levels and team development. Answer A is incorrect because it is a fake term and not related to Project Management. Answer B is correct but not the best response for this question. Answer D is incorrect because it is a fake term.

A41:

Answer B is correct. The technique is best used when time is short or the conflict cannot be resolved through problem-solving techniques. Answer A is incorrect because confronting involves approaching a problem as a problem-solving activity that is used to discuss an issue for a win-win resolution. Answer C is incorrect because coercion is not a PMBOK-identified conflict resolution method. Answer D is incorrect because this term is not related to this topic and is not relevant to this question.

A42:

Answer C is correct. The solicitation process is the means by which you let vendors know what your requirements are. They then respond with a proposal on how they can meet your requirements. Answer A is incorrect because requirement gathering is done in the procurement planning stage. Answer B is incorrect because the actual determination of a vendor happens in the source selection phase. Answer D is incorrect because price negotiation happens in the source selection phase also.

A43:

Answer A is correct. Expectancy Theory asserts that people are motivated in their work with the expectation of being rewarded. Answer B is incorrect because Contingency Theory asserts that people strive to become competent and are motivated after the competency is developed. Answer C is incorrect because the Glass Ceiling Theory is not relevant to this question. Answer D is incorrect because Achievement Theory asserts that people are motivated by power, affiliation, or achievement.

A44:

Answer D is correct. Hygiene factors are hypothesized in Herzberg's Hygiene Theory, which states that an individual's motivation is based upon motivators and hygiene factors. Benefits, pay, and work conditions are examples of hygiene factors. Answer A is incorrect because motivators help provide job satisfaction and include the actual work and the satisfaction that you get from doing the work. These include new skills, getting promotions, and facing work-related challenges. Answer B is incorrect because expectations do not have a direct impact upon job satisfaction unless the expectations are not fulfilled. Answer C is incorrect because social needs are drawn from Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs and are not related to this question.

A45:

Answer B is correct. McGregor's Y Theory asserts that resources need limited supervision and want to positively contribute to an organization to help the project succeed. Answer A is incorrect because Kerzner does not have an affiliation theory. Answer C is incorrect because Motivation-Hygiene Theory is more related to attributes that motive people in the workplace rather than the management styles of team development. Answer D is incorrect because Meredith and Mantel were not the originators of Expectancy Theory, nor is the Expectancy Theory relevant to this question.

A46:

Answer D is the best answer. The Project Management Information System (PMIS) is a culmination of all of the communication tools and techniques that are used throughout the project to keep people informed. Answer A is incorrect because the corporate hierarchy is not a system that is used to communicate, although it is a tool that can assist with the communication and escalation processes. Answer B is correct; however, it is not the best answer for this question because the sender/receiver system is more involved with oral communication rather than all of the verbal and written communication for the project. Answer C is incorrect because a feedback loop is frequently used as a communication tool to provide communication back to an individual concerning issues or topics rather than being a communication system.

A47:

Answer D is the best answer. The execution phase of the project will use more money, time, and resources than the other phases of the project. Answer A is incorrect because the budget has not proportionately allocated money to the execution phase in comparison to the other phases of the project. Answer B may be correct, but it is not the best answer for this question. Answer C may be correct; however, we do not have enough information to make that conclusion with the limited information that we have in this question.

A48:

Answer D is correct. After the source selection is made, the end result is a contract to perform the requested activities. Answer A is partially correct because the corporate procurement policies do affect a contract, but that is not when it is created. Answer B is incorrect because the receipt of a proposal does not make a legal contract. Answer C is incorrect because a contract must be signed before work can be done. However, in certain circumstances, the actual act of work being produced can be considered a default contract. Project managers need to avoid this.

A49:

Answer C is correct. It is essential that team members bring up problems and issues as soon as possible and not ignore them. Problem resolution is part of our responsibility. Answer A is incorrect because delaying the issue until the next staff meeting could be detrimental if it is not resolved quickly. Answer B is not the best answer because the project manager is usually the single point of contact about the events surrounding the project, including expenses. Therefore, it is advantageous for the project manager to be aware of the expenditures and the impact upon the budget. The project manager can approach the vice president about the expenses. Answer D is incorrect because selling the story to a newspaper might be presumptuous of some problem without researching the matter further.

A50:

Answer B is correct. Contract administration involves all the execution phase tasks, including monitoring the project plan, performance reporting, and quality assurance. Answer A is incorrect because, although managing the interaction between various providers is a key element, it is not the purpose of contract administration. Answer C is incorrect because, although change requests are a normal part of most projects, avoiding them because of contractual concerns is inappropriate. Change requests should be managed according to the change control process. Answer D is incorrect because payment to the provider is part of contract administration, not the purpose of it.

A51:

Answer D is correct. Corrective actions are those activities that are a result of when the project is not going as planned and action needs to be taken to get the project back on track. Answer A is incorrect because a change request is the deliverable that triggers the corrective action. Answer B is incorrect because a stratified opportunity would not be associated with the corrective actions or the change control process. Answer C is incorrect because preventative actions are the proactive events that reduce the probability of risks materializing in a project.

A52:

Answer B is the best answer. Work results are the outcomes of the events that are performed to complete a project. This could include tangible work results, such as a highway infrastructure, or intangible work results, such as employee development and knowledge. Answer A is incorrect because training is not considered a capital expense. Answer C could be correct, but it is not the best response for this question. Answer D is not a correct term and is not applicable to this question.

A53:

Answer A is the correct answer. Change requests are the outputs of the project plan execution and therefore are not directly involved with the information distribution process. Answers B, C, and D are outputs that are correlated with records, reports, and presentations as the outputs of information distribution.

A54:

Answer A is the correct answer. Cause-and-effect diagrams, which are also known as fishbone or Ishikawa diagrams, provide details about how various factors might be correlated to potential effects or problems. Answer B is incorrect because the diagrams are not used with a WBS. Answer C could be correct but it is not the best response for this question because kill points are decision points in which the justification for the continued participation of the project might be required. Answer D is not correct because the diagrams are not involved with network logic or forward pass calculations in order to provide quality assurance.

A55:

Answer C is the correct answer. The design of experiments can also be applied to Project Management issues, such as schedule and cost trade-offs, to determine how various levels of expertise can influence the average workloads and costs of different skill sets. Answer A is incorrect because the procurement plan is a deliverable that is associated with the solicitation process, not the execution phase of the project. Answer B is incorrect because the cost of quality is the cost of all efforts to achieve the service and/or product quality combined with expenses resulting from nonconformance to quality standards. Answer D is incorrect because a system flowchart shows how various elements of a system interact with each other, such as a cause-and-effect diagram.

A56:

Answer A is the correct answer. Ambiguous jurisdiction is the feeling that a team member can get when he has to split his allegiance to the functional manager and the project manager so that he can provide support to both parties. Answer B may be correct; however, it is not the best answer to this question. Answer C is incorrect because referent power tends to give strength to a team member because the functional manager is providing the project manager with loaned power that originates from the functional title. Answer D is incorrect because autonomy is the feeling of freedom to make choices, on your own, to fulfill the project needs.

A57:

Answer D is the correct answer. Collocating involves the placement of the team members in the same physical location to enhance their performance. A war room is a location where the team can gather and review notes, project artifacts, and other project-related items. Answer A is incorrect because the use of frequent videoconferencing does not allow collocation of the team and lacks the close proximity that is needed for this technique to work effectively. Answer B is incorrect because status meetings only provide temporary collocation of the team members and do not have same sustained impact. Answer C is incorrect because a reward and recognition system reinforces desired behavior and is not related to the physical proximity of team members to each other.

A58:

Answer D is the correct answer. Lessons learned is involved during the closeout of a project when the team determines what knowledge and skills were developed as a result of the project. Answers A, B, and C are correct statements and can be part of the communication management plan. Consequently, they are incorrect answers for this question.

A59:

Answer B is the correct answer. The organization's structure determines who receives communications and in what format. Therefore, the organization can set constraints upon the communication if the correct people are not kept informed about the project status. Answer A is incorrect because there is not enough information in this statement to come to any conclusions. Answer C is incorrect because the planning activities for this example may or may not involve executive stakeholders, nor will they have similar deliverables. Answer D is incorrect because organizational planning is not an output of the communication planning process.

A60:

Answer C is the correct answer. The weighted average calculation for Vendor 3 is

.9(1) + .5(0) + .3(0) = .9

Answer A is incorrect. The weighted average calculation for Vendor 1 is

.9(0) + .5(1) + .3(0) = .5

Answer B is incorrect. The weighted average calculation for Vendor 2 is

.9(0) + .5(1) + .3(1) = .8

Answer D is incorrect because there is enough information to determine a vendor based upon these criteria.



PMP Practice Questions Exam Cram 2
PMP Practice Questions Exam Cram 2
ISBN: 0789732564
EAN: 2147483647
Year: 2006
Pages: 46
Authors: David Francis

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