Taking the Test

Relax. As soon as you're sitting in front of the testing computer, there's nothing more you can do to increase your knowledge or preparation. Take a deep breath , stretch, and start reading that first question.

You don't need to rush, either. You have plenty of time to complete each question, and if you're taking a fixed-length test, you'll have time to return to the questions that you skipped or marked for return. On a fixed-length test, if you read a question twice and you remain clueless, you can mark it; if you're taking an adaptive test, you'll have to guess and move on. Both easy and difficult questions are intermixed throughout the test in random order. If you're taking a fixed-length test, don't cheat yourself by spending too much time on a hard question early in the test, thereby depriving yourself of the time you need to answer the questions at the end of the test. If you're taking an adaptive test, don't spend more than five minutes on any single question ”if it takes you that long to get nowhere, it's time to guess and move on.

On a fixed-length test, you can read through the entire test, and, before returning to marked questions for a second visit, you can figure out how much time you've got per question. As you answer each question, remove its mark. Continue to review the remaining marked questions until you run out of time or complete the test.

On an adaptive test, set a maximum time limit for questions, and watch your time on long or complex questions. If you hit your limit, it's time to guess and move on. Don't deprive yourself of the opportunity to see more questions by taking too long to puzzle over individual questions, unless you think you can figure out the answer. Otherwise, you're limiting your opportunities to pass.

Question 1	You are studying scalable network design practices in preparation for implementing a medium-scale Enterprise routed network. Regarding hierarchical network designs, which layer typically features the highest possible bandwidth links and often includes redundancy mechanisms? A. Distribution B. Core C. Access D. Workgroup
Question 2	You are using the following command in the configuration of your router at the central office: ip route 10.20.16.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.1.1 200 What is the purpose of the 200 parameter in the command? A. This parameter forces the metric value to 200. B. This parameter forces the administrative distance to 200. C. This parameter specifies the amount of time the route stays in the routing table. D. This parameter specifies the number of TCP sessions that are able to use the route.
Question 3	Which of the following is not a valid reason for using static routes in your enterprise network? A. Several of your routers do not possess powerful CPUs or memory resources. B. You desire total control over routes in your environment. C. You want a route to appear to be directly connected. D. You desire a small degree of administrative overhead.
Question 4	Which of the following statements are true regarding the network command? A. Use classful network statements with RIP and IGRP. B. For all routing protocols except BGP, the network statement indicates an advertisement concerning that route. C. Integrated IS-IS does not use a network statement. D. IGRP and OSPF permit the use of a wildcard mask in the network statement.
Question 5	Which of the following statements regarding On-Demand Routing are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. ODR is a classful routing technology. B. ODR is used in hub and spoke topologies. C. Spoke routers send a default route to the hub while the hub sends information regarding networks in the core to the spoke routers. D. Spoke routers send information about networks to the hub while the hub sends default route information to the spoke routers.
Question 6	You are interested in configuring ODR in your network topology. Which of the following are valid ODR configuration steps? (Choose all that apply.) A. All routers that are to participate in ODR must have the router odr global configuration command. B. The hub router needs the router odr global configuration command. C. The spoke routers need default routes configured that point to the hub router. D. CDP must be enabled on the links between the spoke routers and the hub. E. The hub router must also be running a classless dynamic protocol.
Question 7	Which of the following statements regarding classful routing protocols are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. Classful routing protocols do not carry subnet mask information in routing updates. B. RIP V1 and IGRP are examples. C. Network boundary summarization is not performed automatically. D. If a routing update is received and a different major network is indicated than the network address in use on the interface, the router applies the subnet mask configured on the receiving interface.
Question 8	Your RIP version 1 router contains the following entries in the ip routing table: R 10.1.1.0/24 [120/1] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:16, Ethernet0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0 R 10.1.3.0/24 [120/2] via 10.1.2.2, 00:00:05, Ethernet0 R* 0.0.0.0/0 [120/3] via 10.1.2.2, 00:00:16, Ethernet0 Your router has received traffic destined for the IP address 10.2.2.2. You are not using the ip classless command. Where will the traffic be routed? A. The traffic uses the first entry in the routing table to route via 10.1.1.2. B. The traffic uses the third entry in the routing table to route via 10.1.2.2. C. The traffic uses the default route entry to route via 10.1.2.2. D. The traffic will be discarded.
Question 9	You are using RIP version 2 in your enterprise network. You are interested in controlling the summarization process between two of your routers in the network. What two commands are required to configure manual summarization with RIP version 2? (Choose 2.) A. ip rip send-version-2 B. no auto-summary C. network command with a summarized prefix D. ip summary-address rip
Question 10	What is the administrative distance assigned to external BGP by default? A. 20 B. 90 C. 5 D. 100 E. 110
Question 11	Which of the following routing protocols feature automatic route summarization by default? (Choose all that apply.) A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. IS-IS D. OSPF E. BGP
Question 12	Which of the following IS-IS routers is equivalent to an ABR in OSPF? A. Level 1 B. Level 2 C. Level 1/2 D. Level 3
Question 13	Which of the following statements regarding IS-IS metrics are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. The Cisco IOS supports the default metric component by default. B. The Cisco router assigns a default metric of 1 to an interface. C. If not adjusted, the Cisco metric approach is similar to RIP. D. Narrow metrics are limited to a 24-bit interface and 32-bit path metrics.
Question 14	You are considering using IS-IS as your IGP. You are confused by the different levels of routing that IS-IS defines, however. What level of IS-IS routing is also known as area routing? A. L0 B. L1 C. L2 D. L3
Question 15	You have been asked to provide a comparison between IS-IS and OSPF. Which of the following statements are true regarding IS-IS in comparison to OSPF? (Choose all that apply.) A. IS-IS is more extensible. B. Documentation and experienced engineers are easier to find for IS-IS. C. IS-IS metrics scale automatically. D. IS-IS is more customized to IP, providing advanced features such as area types. E. IS-IS detects network changes more quickly.
Question 16	Which portion of the IS-IS NSAP address structure identifies a process on the device, and corresponds roughly to a port or socket in IP? A. Area address B. NSEL D. System ID D. HODSP
Question 17	Which of the following statements is true regarding system IDs? A. System IDs must be unique. B. System IDs are 6 bytes. C. System IDs are 8 bytes. D. System IDs are not used in IS-IS.
Question 18	You are troubleshooting an IS-IS network. Under this IGP, what does the SNPA employ for an HDLC interface? A. MAC address B. Virtual Circuit ID C. DLCI D. HDLC
Question 19	Which of the following IS-IS PDU types is used to acknowledge and request missing pieces of link-state information? A. IIH B. LSP C. PSNP D. CSNP
Question 20	You are troubleshooting your IS-IS network and you would like to view the IS-IS L2 routing table. Which command should you use? A. show clns route B. show ip route C. show isis database D. show isis route
Question 21	You are configuring Integrated IS-IS in your Cisco internetwork. How do the Cisco routers identify which interfaces are participating in the IS-IS routing process? A. The network router configuration command B. The ip router isis interface configuration command C. The NET configured on the router D. The isis interface map statements
Question 22	You are studying IP version 6 in preparation for deploying it in your Cisco network. You are interested in the autoconfiguration capabilities built into the protocol. Using this technology, a client station automatically learns its network address. Which part of the address is sent from the router to the host? A. Network prefix B. Entire network address C. MAC address D. Host address
Question 23	The new IPv6 header contains 40 octets in contrast to the 20 octets in IPv4. This header contains several new or modified fields. Which field is used for special multilayer switching techniques and faster packet-switching performance mechanisms? A. Version B. Traffic Class C. Flow Label D. Next Header
Question 24	Which command might you use when troubleshooting NAT? A. show nat events B. debug nat events C. show ip nat translations D. show ip nat events
Question 25	Which of the following elements of NAT terminology describes the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network? A. Inside local IP address B. Inside global IP address C. Outside global IP address D. Outside local IPaddress
Question 26	Which of the following is the best summary route for the 172.24.4.0/24 through 172.24.14.0/24 range of subnets? A. 172.24.4.0/20 B. 172.24.4.0/22 C. 172.24.4.0/23 D. 172.24.8.0/22 E. 172.24.14.0/23
Question 27	If you are using a prefix of /20, how many additional subnetworks are gained when you take one of your subnets and use a prefix of /24? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32
Question 28	You are going to employ VLSM. You have a network address of 192.168.2.0. Which mask would be best to use with a point-to-point serial WAN connection? A. 255.255.255.224 B. 255.255.255.240 C. 255.255.255.248 D. 255.255.255.252
Question 29	Which of the following protocols does not support VLSM? A. EIGRP B. RIP V2 C. IGRP D. OSPF E. IS-IS
Question 30	Which of the following statements about variable length subnet masking is true? (Choose all that apply.) A. It is supported in classless routing protocols. B. It enables you to create multiple logical interfaces on a single physical router interface. C. It enables you to allocate IP addressing in an efficient manner, and allows for more summarization. D. It is supported in all standard routing protocols.
Question 31	In the EIGRP dynamic routing protocol, the best next hop router to reach a given destination is referred to as what? A. Feasible successor B. Successor C. Primary D. Designated
Question 32	In EIGRP, what term refers to the cost between your source router and the destination network? A. Advertised distance B. Feasible distance C. Successor distance D. Feasible successor
Question 33	What is the correct criteria for a route to become a feasible successor? A. The feasible distance of the route must be equal to the feasible distance of the successor. B. The advertised distance of the next hop router must be less than the feasible distance of the successor. C. The advertised distance of the next hop router must be greater than the feasible distance of the successor. D. The advertised distance of the next hop router must be equal to the feasible distance of the successor.
Question 34	Which of the following statements are true regarding the EIGRP metric calculation? (Choose all that apply.) A. The default K values are as follows : K1 = 1; K2 = 0; K3 = 0; K4 = 0; K5 = 1. B. The default key values indicate that the metric is composed of bandwidth and delay. C. EIGRP does not form a neighbor relationship if K values do not match. D. When using redistribution to integrate IGRP routes into an EIGRP domain, the router multiplies the IGRP metric by 256 to compute the EIGRP-equivalent metric.
Question 35	Which packet types used by EIGRP must be explicitly acknowledged ? (Choose all that apply.) A. ACK B. hello C. reply D. query E. update
Question 36	EIGRP features a unique treatment of WAN bandwidth by default. What percentage of WAN bandwidth does EIGRP use by default? A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100
Question 37	Which of the following is not an advantage that OSPF possesses over RIP? A. OSPF features faster convergence in most circumstances. B. OSPF does not impose a hop count limit. C. OSPF features decreased CPU utilization when compared to RIP. D. OSPF uses cost as a metric to make routing decisions.
Question 38	All OSPF routers in the same area possess identical ____________ databases. A. Link state B. Routing C. Neighborship D. Area
Question 39	In which of the following states are routers considered synchronized? A. Loading State B. Exstart state C. Init State D. Two-way state E. Full State
Question 40	You have three routers on a network segment. One is set to a priority of 2, another is set to 0, and the third is left in the default configuration. Which router becomes the DR? A. The router with a priority of 0 B. The router with a priority of 1 C. The router with a priority of 2 D. The router with a loopback interface
Question 41	Your router is configured with a serial interface (172.16.8.1), an Ethernet interface (172.16.16.1), and two loopback addresses (10.1.1.1 and 10.2.2.2). What is the Router ID for this router? A. 172.16.8.1 B. 172.16.16.1 C. 10.1.1.1 D. 10.2.2.2
Question 42	Which of the following is an RFC mode of operation for OSPF in a NBMA topology? A. Broadcast B. Point-to-point C. Point-to-multipoint D. Point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
Question 43	Which of the following is not a field found in an OSPF Hello packet? A. Router ID B. Stub area flag C. Router priority D. DR address E. BDR address F. Link-state update
Question 44	You are the administrator for a very large Cisco network running the OSPF routing protocol. You want to ensure that a specific router never participates in DR or BDR elections . What is the best course of action? A. Set the priority values of the router to a very high value. B. Set the priority values of the router to 0. C. Create a loopback interface on the router. D. Use the command no election-process .
Question 45	You would like to configure your full mesh frame relay topology in NBMA mode. Which of the following statements is true? A. There is no DR/BDR election. B. You must manually configure the neighbors. C. Each interface pair must be placed in its own unique subnet. D. This configuration is unique to Cisco equipment.
Question 46	Which of the following OSPF network statements configures OSPF to function with all interface addresses on the router? A. network all all area 0 B. network any any area 0 C. network area 0 D. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
Question 47	You need to identify the OSPF priority value of the router to which you are currently logged in. What command should you use? A. show ip ospf B. show ip ospf border-routers C. show ip ospf database D. show ip ospf interface
Question 48	Which of the following is an advantage of using multiple areas with OSPF? A. SPF calculations increase, yet the neighbor table size is reduced. B. Router table size is increased, yet SPF calculations are reduced. C. Topology tables are increased in size, yet router tables decrease in size. D. Smaller routing tables are possible, and SPF calculations are reduced.
Question 49	Because multiple areas can be used to configure OSPF, it is a __________ routing protocol. A. Distance vector B. Link State C. Hierarchical D. Reliable
Question 50	This OSPF router type has at least one interface attached to an external network (another AS): A. ABR B. Internal C. Backbone D. ASBR
Question 51	This LSA type originates at the ASBR and describes routes to destinations external to the AS: A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 E. Type 5
Question 52	What type of LSA is blocked from a totally stubby area? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 E. Type 5 F. Types 1 and 2 G. Types 3, 4, and 5
Question 53	Which of the following statements regarding redistribution is true? A. Redistribution is an excellent design technique and should be used whenever possible. B. Redistribution is not possible between IGRP and EIGRP. C. Hop count is always used as the metric when routes are redistributed. D. Redistribution occurs automatically between IGRP and EIGRP when they have the same AS number.
Question 54	Which of the following match statements would you use if you are interested in matching packet length? A. match length min max B. match layer 3 length min max C. match size min max D. match min max
Question 55	Which of the following statements regarding BGP is not correct? A. Periodic keep-alives are sent to verify TCP connectivity. B. Reliability in BGP stems from the use of Transmission Control Protocol. C. Periodic updates are used to ensure full topological awareness. D. BGP uses path vectors for routing decisions.
Question 56	Which statement about two routers connected via EBGP is true? A. They are typically directly connected. B. They are not typically connected. C. Keep- alive mechanisms are not used. D. UDP is used to transfer information with EBGP.
Question 57	What is the BGP synchronization rule? A. Do not use or advertise a route learned by IBGP until a matching route has been learned from an IGP. B. Do not use or advertise a route learned by EBGP until a matching route has been learned from an IGP. C. Do not use or advertise a route learned by IBGP. D. Do not use or advertise a route learned by EBGP.
Question 58	How do you configure a BGP neighbor that is in your same AS of 65000? A. neighbor 10.1.1.2 as 65000 B. neighbor 10.1.1.2 65000 C. neighbor 10.1.1.2 as IBGP 65000 D. neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 65000 E. neighbor 10.1.1.2
Question 59	What does a route reflector do when it receives an update from one of its clients ? A. The route reflector sends the update to all nonclient peers and all clients. B. The route reflector sends the update to all nonclient peers and all clients with the exception of the originator. C. The route reflector sends the update to all client peers. D. The route reflector sends the update to all other route reflectors.
Question 60	What is the correct syntax to configure route reflectors in your BGP AS? A. route-reflector self B. neighbor 172.16.10.10 route-reflector-client C. route-reflector 172.16.10.20 D. neighbor 172.16.10.10 reflector-client