Exam Questions

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1.

Your project team is working with a vendor to correct some programming errors found during user acceptance testing. The decision is made to work through lunch and order take-out. When the food is delivered, the vendor says the bill has been taken care of. What do you do?

A.

You accept and thank the vendor for your lunch.

B.

You accept and tell him you will pay for lunch for everyone tomorrow.

C.

You keep working and pretend you did not hear what the vendor said.

D.

You decline and pay for your own meal.


2.

Which of the following statements does not apply to the project charter?

A.

The project charter formally authorizes the project.

B.

The project charter provides the project manager with authority to devote organizational resources to project activities.

C.

The project charter identifies an external project sponsor.

D.

The project charter includes a work breakdown structure (WBS) and associated WBS dictionary.


3.

When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

A.

Prior to the start of project planning

B.

After the project charter is approved

C.

During project planning

D.

During project execution


4.

What does a project scope statement document?

A.

What work is to be completed during the project

B.

What deliverables need to be produced by the project

C.

Both A and B

D.

Neither A nor B


5.

What does a statement of work (SOW) identify?

A.

The business need for the project

B.

The project or product requirements

C.

The strategic plan

D.

All of the above


6.

Various models or tools are used during project selection to measure potential benefits associated with a project. Which of the following is not a benefit measurement model?

A.

Scoring model

B.

Economic model

C.

Mathematical model

D.

Benefit contribution


7.

The change control system is a subsystem of what?

A.

Configuration management

B.

Project management

C.

Risk management

D.

Scope management


8.

As a project manager, you direct the performance of all planned project activities and manage the technical and organizational resources available to and interacting with your project. Your work is performed in conjunction with whom?

A.

The external project sponsor

B.

The project management team

C.

All of the above

D.

None of the above


9.

The earned value technique (EVT) measures project performance from project initiation through which of the following phases?

A.

Project planning

B.

Project executing

C.

Project controlling

D.

Project closing


10.

The project scope management plan, as a component of the project management plan, includes which of the following?

A.

Preparation of a detailed project scope statement

B.

Creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Specifications for formal verification and acceptance of completed project deliverables

D.

All of the above


11.

Approved change requests can cause a change to which of the following project elements?

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Schedule

D.

All of the above


12.

The ______ is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be performed by the project team.

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Milestone schedule

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Master schedule


13.

The work breakdown structure (WBS) does all of the following, except:

A.

Organizes and defines the entire scope of the project

B.

Divides the project into smaller, more manageable tasks

C.

Serves as a high-level planning tool for work planned but not yet approved

D.

Both A and B


14.

______ is the subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. The final product categorizes project deliverables at the work package level.

A.

Baselining

B.

Critical path mapping

C.

Decomposition

D.

Resource leveling


15.

The project cost and schedule for deliverables can be reasonably estimated at what level of the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A.

The lowest level

B.

The midlevel

C.

The work package level

D.

Both A and C


16.

As the project manager recently assigned to a project in execution, you're asked to rescope the existing project. The project sponsor believes the current scope is unattainable given the budget and scheduled end date. The project is over budget and not meeting schedule milestones. Project cost estimates and timelines were created under the previous project manager. Your analysis of the original project assumptions and constraints show that scope reduction will not enable you to meet the originally estimated end date or budget. What do you do?

A.

Inform the project sponsor that a scope reduction will not allow the project to meet the original timeline or budget and await further instruction.

B.

Re-estimate the entire project in terms of scope, timeline, and budget, and then present the project sponsor with each available option given the project assumptions and constraints.

C.

Reduce the scope and proceed with the direction given by the project sponsor.

D.

None of the above.


17.

One component of the scope baseline for a project is

A.

The preliminary project scope

B.

The approved preliminary project scope

C.

The detailed project scope

D.

The approved detailed project scope


18.

A project is a(n) ______ endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

A.

Permanent

B.

Temporary

C.

Ongoing

D.

None of the above


19.

You're part of a project team constructing a manufacturing plant. You begin using process engineering to define the assumptions and constraints of the manufacturing process to be performed at the plant. This information is then used to design the major manufacturing units within the plant, which in turn serves as the starting point for designing the detailed plant layout and all other associated facilities. Next, design drawings are completed for fabrication and construction requirements. Changes and modifications occur during actual construction, requiring change control management and "as-built" documents. Finally, user acceptance testing and turnover of the completed manufacturing plant results in more adjustments and corrections . This is an example of

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Assumptions analysis

C.

Fast tracking

D.

Progressive elaboration


20.

The risk of project failure is highest during which phase of a project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Controlling


21.

The ability for project stakeholders to influence the project scope and cost of a project is greatest during which phase of a project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Controlling


22.

The cost of changes to project scope generally ______ over the life cycle of a project.

A.

Increase

B.

Decrease

C.

Stabilize

D.

None of the above


23.

Project cost and project staffing resources follow a typical pattern during the life cycle of a project. Which of the following is common?

A.

Cost and staffing levels are high at the beginning of the project, stabilize during the middle phases of the project, and drop rapidly toward project closing.

B.

Cost and staffing levels are high at the beginning of the project, high during the middle phases of the project, and drop rapidly toward project closing.

C.

Cost and staffing levels are low at the beginning of the project, peak during the middle phases of the project, and drop rapidly toward project closing.

D.

Cost and staffing levels are low at the beginning of the project, rise during the middle phases of the project, and peak toward project closing.


24.

An organization comprised by a full-time project manager with moderate project authority and a full-time project management administrative staff is an example of what type of structure?

A.

Functional

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Projectized


25.

One type of progressive elaboration occurs when the work to be performed within the near term is planned in detail while work scheduled for further out is defined at only a high level in the work breakdown structure (WBS). As the task draws nearer, the amount of detail for the task is further defined. Which of the following terms defines this type of progressive elaboration?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Activity-on-node (AON)

D.

Rolling wave planning


26.

What is the most common precedence relationship used in the precedence diagramming method (PDM)?

A.

Finish-to-start

B.

Finish-to-finish

C.

Start-to-finish

D.

Start-to-start


27.

Which of the following is not a type of dependency available in activity sequencing?

A.

Discretionary dependencies

B.

External dependencies

C.

Internal dependencies

D.

Mandatory dependencies


28.

When a scheduled activity cannot be estimated with an adequate degree of certainty, the work within the activity can be decomposed. The resource requirements for each lower, more detailed work package can be estimated and aggregated to form a basis for estimating the overarching scheduled activity. What is this type of estimating called?

A.

Bottom-up estimating

B.

Decomposed estimating

C.

Should-cost estimating

D.

Three-point estimating


29.

What does crashing a project imply?

A.

Project cost and project schedule tradeoffs occur to achieve the maximum schedule compression for the least cost to the project without compromising the intended scope of the project.

B.

Project cost and project schedule overruns resulting in a project coming in over budget and over time but within the original defined project scope.

C.

Throwing more resources at the project to meet the planned project end date and planned project scope.

D.

Another term for fast tracking a project.


30.

Cost control of a project entails determining and evaluating which of the following factors?

A.

The cause of a cost variance

B.

The magnitude of a cost variance

C.

Both A and B

D.

Neither A nor B


31.

Planned value (PV) is

A.

The budgeted cost for work scheduled to be completed on an activity up to a specific time

B.

The budgeted cost for the work actually completed on the schedule activity during a specific time period

C.

The total cost for work on the schedule activity during a specific time period

D.

None of the above


32.

The most commonly used performance measure for evaluating if work is being completed as planned at any given time point in a project is which of the following?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Schedule variance (SV)

C.

Both A and B

D.

Neither A nor B


33.

A cost performance index (CPI) value less than 1.0 indicates a project has which of the following?

A.

A cost overrun of the cost estimates

B.

A cost underrun of the cost estimates

C.

Neither a cost overrun nor a cost underrun

D.

None of the above


34.

You're managing a project using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. What is the cost variance (CV) for the project?

A.

100,000

B.

100,000

C.

50,000

D.

50,000


35.

You're managing the same project cited in question 34 using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. What is the schedule variance (SV) for the project?

A.

100,000

B.

100,000

C.

50,000

D.

50,000


36.

You're managing the project cited in question 34 using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. Calculate the cost performance index (CPI) for the project. What is the cost-efficiency of the project?

A.

Over budget

B.

Under budget

C.

On budget

D.

Unable to determine from the information given


37.

You're managing the project cited in question 34 using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI) for the project?

A.

0.5

B.

1.5

C.

1.75

D.

2


38.

Comparing planned project practices or actual project best practices from other comparable projects to your project in an effort to improve the quality of your project and establish performance measurement baselines is called what?

A.

Benchmarking

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Metric creation

D.

Quality assurance (QA)


39.

A structured, independent review to determine if project activities adhere to your project management plan and other project documentation, including all project policies, procedures, and standards, is called a(n) ______.

A.

Assurance review

B.

Organizational process assessment

C.

Process analysis

D.

Quality audit


40.

Monitoring project activities and results to evaluate if the findings comply with applicable quality standards as well as identifying mitigation strategies is a ______ activity.

A.

Quality assessment

B.

Quality assurance

C.

Quality control

D.

Quality improvement


41.

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic tools of quality?

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Statistical sampling

C.

Histogram

D.

Scatter diagram


42.

Ishikawa diagrams are also known as

A.

Cause and effect diagrams

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Fishbone diagram

D.

Both A and C


43.

A Pareto chart is a type of

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Histogram

D.

Scatter diagram


44.

Project communication planning includes which of the following tasks?

A.

Determining and limiting who will communicate with whom and who will receive what information

B.

Combining the type and format of information needed with an analysis of the value of the information for communication

C.

Understanding how communication affects the project as a whole

D.

All of the above


45.

Communication technology factors that can affect a project include

A.

The urgency of the information need

B.

The expected staffing on the project and their individual competencies

C.

The length of the project

D.

All of the above


46.

Which of the following is an accurate statement?

A.

Qualitative risk analysis occurs prior to quantitative risk analysis.

B.

Quantitative risk analysis occurs prior to qualitative risk analysis.

C.

Qualitative risk analysis is performed on risks that have been prioritized during quantitative risk analysis.

D.

Both B and C.


47.

In evaluating project risk, a decision tree analysis is most helpful in which of the following scenarios?

A.

Describing a potential risk and the implications for each available choice and outcome associated with the risk

B.

Describing a potential risk and the most likely choice and outcome associated with the risk

C.

Describing a potential risk and the least likely choice and outcome associated with the risk

D.

None of the above


48.

The identification of risks associated with a project happens when?

A.

Occurs only at the beginning of a project when the risk management plan is developed

B.

Is an ongoing process, regularly scheduled throughout the life cycle of a project

C.

Occurs as needed throughout the life cycle of a project

D.

Both B and C


49.

The responsibility for tailoring a contract for goods and services to the needs of the project lies with whom?

A.

The project manager

B.

The project management team

C.

The attorneys

D.

The contract manager


50.

The decision on whether a product or service can be produced by the project management team or can be purchased is called what?

A.

Buyer assessment

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Make-or-buy analysis

D.

Procurement evaluation


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    PMP Exam Cram 2
    PMP Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition)
    ISBN: 0789734621
    EAN: 2147483647
    Year: 2005
    Pages: 138

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