Chapter 16. Practice Exam 2

Question 1

You are connected to an access server and you need to establish a session with a modem attached to an asynchronous line. Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose three.)

  • A. You can connect to the modem using a reverse Telnet session.

  • B. You specify a TCP port of 2000 + n as part of the command parameters.

  • C. You need to know the line to which the modem is attached.

  • D. You need to set the modem inout command in global configuration mode.

Question 2

You attempt to establish a reverse Telnet connection to a modem attached to a line on the access server but are unable to do so. What should you do? (Choose two.)

  • A. Verify the transport input command has been set on the line.

  • B. Configure the rlogin command on the access server line.

  • C. Issue the show users EXEC command to verify that the line is not in use.

  • D. Configure the modem dialin command on the access server line.

Question 3

Which of the following configuration commands are set at the logical interface interface async 7?

  • A. encapsulation ppp

  • B. modem inout

  • C. speed 115200

  • D. autoselect ppp

  • E. ppp authentication chap

Question 4

Which command do you use to create a logical asynchronous interface for a group of multiple asynchronous lines?

  • A. transport input all

  • B. interface async

  • C. dialer-group

  • D. interface group-async

Question 5

Indicate the command used to restrict a line on an access server to allow a modem to accept incoming calls only.

  • A. modem accept

  • B. modem dialin

  • C. modem callout

  • D. modem inout

Question 6

You want to view the contents of a specific modemcap database entry. Which of the following will provide the desired information?

  • A. show modemcap

  • B. show modemcap usr_sportster

  • C. show modemcap entry usr_sportster

  • D. show modemcap entry

Question 7

If the attached modem type is known, modem autoconfiguration is preferred over modem discovery for an automatic modem configuration method.

  • A. True

  • B. False

Question 8

Which two tasks can you perform using the modemcap edit command?

  • A. View the contents of a modemcap entry

  • B. Add attributes to an existing modemcap entry

  • C. Remove a modem entry from the modemcap

  • D. Create a new entry in the modem cap database

Question 9

Which of the following commands can you use to verify the physical modem and line parameters on a virtual terminal line?

  • A. show vty

  • B. show interface

  • C. show modem

  • D. show line

Question 10

Which of the following standard modem commands loads the factory defaults?

  • A. AT&0

  • B. AT&F

  • C. ATS0=n

  • D. AT\Q3

Question 11

Priority list configurations have been set on a router to assign packets to queues according to an access list. Which of the following is true about traffic that does not match any of the rules defined in the priority list?

  • A. You can assign all undefined traffic to a queue using the priority-list default command.

  • B. All undefined traffic is automatically placed in the low-priority queue.

  • C. All undefined traffic must be discarded.

  • D. All undefined traffic is automatically placed in the high-priority queue.

Question 12

Which of the following characteristics most accurately describe custom queuing (CQ)? (Choose two.)

  • A. Causes unfavorable delays in the transmission of low-importance traffic

  • B. Transmits sequentially a configured percentage of traffic from each queue

  • C. Allows the assignment of a portion of the bandwidth to each queue

  • D. Can only prioritize traffic based on the protocol type

Question 13

You need to configure the size of queue number 2. What is the correct command to make this change?

  • A. queue-list queue limit

  • B. priority-list queue limit

  • C. queue-list queue byte-count

  • D. priority-list queue byte-count

Question 14

You can optimize traffic flow on a WAN link through the use of compression. Per-interface (or link) compression on a point-to-point connection between Cisco devices

  • A. Is protocol independent

  • B. Compresses the header

  • C. Compresses the payload

  • D. Can use the Predictor algorithm

  • E. Can use the STAC algorithm

  • F. All of the above

Question 15

You use congestion-avoidance techniques to reduce the likelihood of congestion on the network. Which is the default packet-dropping mechanism used by the Cisco IOS quality-of-service (QoS) features?

  • A. Random Early Detection (RED)

  • B. Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED)

  • C. Tail drop

  • D. Spoofing

Question 16

Identify which of the following statements is not true regarding WRED:

  • A. You can use the WRED mechanism to avoid tail drops.

  • B. It combines RED algorithm features with IP precedence.

  • C. It is a Cisco IOS QoS feature for congestion avoidance.

  • D. It is more likely to drop packets of high IP precedence.

Question 17

Indicate the command that specifies the IP address of the CiscoSecure Access Control Server (ACS) to be used for authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services:

  • A. aaa new-model

  • B. radius-server host

  • C. aaa authentication

  • D. tacacs-server key

Question 18

Which of the following is not one of the core components of CiscoSecure?

  • A. AAA client

  • B. AAA ACS

  • C. Firewall

  • D. Database

Question 19

Which AAA component is responsible for the identification of a user requesting access to network resources?

  • A. Authorization

  • B. Accounting

  • C. Authentication

  • D. Association

Question 20

Which AAA command do you use to define the local method list for login authentication?

  • A. login authentication

  • B. aaa new-model

  • C. aaa authentication login

  • D. ppp authentication

Question 21

You want to audit all system-level events on a CiscoSecure ACS. What command do you use to enable auditing of this information?

  • A. aaa accounting connection

  • B. aaa accounting events

  • C. aaa accounting command

  • D. aaa accounting system

Question 22

Which of the following Frame Relay traffic-shaping terms refers to the rate at which a Frame Relay switch agrees to transfer data traffic?

  • A. Bc

  • B. Be

  • C. CIR

  • D. BECN

Question 23

You have set the Frame Relay encapsulation on an interface. Which command do you now use to enable Frame Relay traffic shaping on the interface?

  • A. encapsulation frame-relay

  • B. map-class frame-relay

  • C. frame-relay traffic-shaping

  • D. frame-relay class

Question 24

You have enabled traffic shaping on your Frame Relay interface and you have defined a map class. You now want to associate that map class with specific multipoint subinterfaces. What command do you use?

  • A. frame-relay map

  • B. map-class frame-relay

  • C. frame-relay class

  • D. frame-relay map-class

Question 25

You need to avoid reachability problems caused by split horizon on your hub-and-spoke Frame Relay network. Which of the following configuration tasks is commonly used to address the issues caused by split horizon?

  • A. Configuring Frame Relay map statements

  • B. Implementing Frame Relay subinterfaces

  • C. Disabling the forwarding of broadcasts

  • D. Configuring a loopback interface

Question 26

What do you use the frame-relay adaptive-shaping command for?

  • A. To set virtual circuit (VC) rate adjustment to be based on backward explicit congestion notification (BECN) messages

  • B. To set the committed information rate (CIR) for a virtual circuit

  • C. To specify the excess burst (Be) size for outgoing traffic

  • D. To enable Frame Relay traffic shaping and per-virtual circuit queuing on an interface

Question 27

Which command do you use to configure traffic-shaping rate enforcement when defining Frame Relay map class parameters?

  • A. map-class frame-relay

  • B. frame-relay interface-dlci

  • C. frame-relay traffic-rate

  • D. frame-relay class

Question 28

You would like to display packets sent on a particular Frame Relay interface, including the destination address, size, and type of the packet. Which command do you use?

  • A. debug events

  • B. debug frame-relay packet

  • C. debug frame-relay

  • D. debug frame-relay out

Question 29

In which situation must you set service profile identifiers (SPIDs) during the ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) configuration process?

  • A. You must never configure SPIDs for an ISDN BRI.

  • B. You must always configure SPIDs for an ISDN BRI.

  • C. You must set SPIDs to use the D-channel for data transmission.

  • D. You must configure SPIDs when required by the service provider.

Question 30

A Frame Relay router has a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to IP address mapping table that it uses to route outgoing traffic to the appropriate virtual circuit. There are two methods by which DLCI numbers are mapped to IP addresses. What are they? (Choose two.)

  • A. Dynamically using Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

  • B. Dynamically using inverse ARP

  • C. Statically using the frame-relay address command

  • D. Statically using the frame-relay map command

Question 31

Which statements best describe a floating static route? (Choose two.)

  • A. A static alternative route used only when a dynamic route to a network is lost

  • B. A static route to a network that is preferred over an available dynamic route

  • C. Routes with a smaller administrative distance than dynamic routing protocols

  • D. Routes with a greater administrative distance than dynamic routing protocols

Question 32

Which of the following commands used to verify Frame Relay traffic shaping provides information on traffic-shaping parameters and the queuing algorithm in use?

  • A. show frame-relay pvc

  • B. show frame-relay lmi

  • C. show frame-relay map

  • D. show frame-relay traffic

Question 33

You can use Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) encapsulation on which of the following WAN connection types? (Choose all that apply.)

  • A. Synchronous serial

  • B. Asynchronous serial

  • C. Broadband

  • D. ISDN

Question 34

Which of the following choices of WAN technologies provides the fastest connection speed?

  • A. Cable

  • B. DSL

  • C. ISDN Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

  • D. T3 line

Question 35

The router's dial backup configuration includes the following command:

 backup load 75 5 

Which statements are true regarding this configuration command? (Choose all that apply.)

  • A. The backup link is brought down when it drops to 5% capacity.

  • B. The backup link comes up when the primary line is at 75% capacity.

  • C. The backup link is brought down when the aggregate load on backup and primary is 5% of primary's capacity.

  • D. Seventy-five is the backup line enable threshold represented by a percentage of the primary line's available bandwidth.

Question 36

You must configure the router with the necessary information to dial a destination router. What do you use?

  • A. dialer-script

  • B. dialer map

  • C. dialer-group

  • D. dialer host

Question 37

Which of the following dial-on-demand routing (DDR) commands do you use to determine how long a line can remain idle before it is disconnected for use by a contending call?

  • A. dialer idle-timeout

  • B. dialer load-threshold

  • C. dialer release-timer

  • D. dialer fast-idle

Question 38

What does the 40 signify in the backup delay 30 40 command?

  • A. The primary link capacity at which the backup link is brought up

  • B. The amount of time delay before the backup link is brought down

  • C. The amount of time delay before the backup link is brought up

  • D. The primary link capacity at which the backup link is brought down

Question 39

Which command do you use on the backup interface to enable dialer watch?

  • A. dialer watch

  • B. dialer watch-group

  • C. dialer watch-list

  • D. dialer watch-enable

Question 40

You are configuring a point-to-point connection to be used for DDR. Part of the configuration will include PPP callback. You want to make sure interesting packets received on the interface while the connection is being established will be buffered rather than dropped. What command can you use to enable the storing of packets until the dialer interface is ready for packet transfer?

  • A. dialer-queue

  • B. dialer hold-queue

  • C. dialer enable-timeout

  • D. dialer hold-time

Question 41

What command do you use to assign a physical interface to a dialer pool?

  • A. dialer string

  • B. dialer pool

  • C. dialer-group

  • D. dialer pool-member

Question 42

Which of the following DDR backup features monitors the status of a certain list of routes instead of relying entirely on interesting traffic to trigger calls on a secondary link?

  • A. Floating static routes

  • B. Spoofing

  • C. Dialer watch

  • D. Dialer profiles

Question 43

A router with a native BRI interface is what type of device?

  • A. TE2

  • B. TE1

  • C. NT1

  • D. NT2

Question 44

ISDN rate adaptation is used for what?

  • A. To evenly load-balance between ISDN B-channels

  • B. To allow a TE1 device to connect to the ISDN network

  • C. To deal with congestion on the ISDN connection

  • D. To allow the ISDN channel to adjust to a lower speed

Question 45

Part of your DDR configuration includes the command passive-interface dialer0. What is the purpose of this command?

  • A. It specifies the backup interface.

  • B. It configures the interface for outgoing calls only.

  • C. It prevents routing updates from initiating DDR calls.

  • D. It prevents interesting traffic from initiating DDR calls.

Question 46

An access server is using 42 asynchronous interfaces for point-to-point connections between remote users and the corporate IP network. You need to assign IP addresses to all the interfaces. Which command do you use to conserve the number of IP addresses for the asynchronous interfaces?

  • A. ip address

  • B. peer default ip address

  • C. ip unnumbered

  • D. ip local-pool dialin

Question 47

What effect does the dialer load-threshold 128 command have? (Choose two.)

  • A. It brings up a backup link if the primary link fails.

  • B. It brings up subsequent links using Multilink PPP (MLP).

  • C. It comes into effect when the link speed reaches 128Kbps.

  • D. It comes into effect once 50% of the bandwidth is used.

Question 48

Which of the following are reasons why you would use Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) for authentication? (Choose two.)

  • A. Security is not a concern.

  • B. Hashed passwords must be exchanged.

  • C. Hosts are running legacy PPP software.

  • D. A leased point-to-point connection is used.

Question 49

Which of the following commands configures the router to screen incoming ISDN calls to verify that they have been initiated from an allowed number?

  • A. isdn caller-id

  • B. isdn caller

  • C. isdn answer

  • D. isdn dialin

Question 50

Which command do you use to set a slow-speed serial interface to operate in asynchronous mode?

  • A. autoselect ppp

  • B. async mode dedicated

  • C. interface async

  • D. physical-layer async

Question 51

Examples of a remote-access virtual private network (VPN) scenario include which of the following? (Choose two.)

  • A. A secure tunnel is established between a network access server and the corporate network.

  • B. A secure tunnel is created between the branch office network and the corporate network.

  • C. A customer site connects to corporate network resources through a secure tunnel.

  • D. A client connects to its Internet service provider (ISP) and establishes a secure tunnel to the corporate network.

Question 52

You can apply IP Security (IPSec) security protocols in two different modes. Which of the statements best describe the transport mode? (Choose two.)

  • A. Encrypts the entire IP packet

  • B. Requires IPSec to be implemented on the end hosts

  • C. Provides security for the upper protocol layers

  • D. Requires no involvement by the end hosts

Question 53

You are in the process of configuring network address translation on your router and you enter the ip nat pool command. What do you use this command for?

  • A. To define the inside network that will participate in address translation

  • B. To define the range of global IP addresses that are used for dynamic network address translation (NAT)

  • C. To define the range of local IP addresses participating in address translation

  • D. To define the pool of global IP addresses to be used for static NAT mappings

Question 54

Which of the following security protocols are used for IPSec encapsulation? (Choose two.)

  • A. Encapsulating Security Payload

  • B. Encryption Security Protocol

  • C. Authentication Header

  • D. Advanced Hashing

Question 55

PAT, or port address translation, is a form of network address translation that is also referred to as

  • A. Static translation

  • B. Address overlapping

  • C. Address overloading

  • D. Advanced NAT

Question 56

You are troubleshooting NAT on your router and want to view information on packet translations taking place and possible translation errors. Which command provides this type of information?

  • A. debug ip nat statistics

  • B. debug ip nat translations

  • C. debug ip nat detailed

  • D. debug ip nat entries

Question 57

Two methods used by IPSec to determine the keys that will be used by security algorithms include

  • A. Message Digest 5 (MD5)

  • B. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

  • C. Security associations (SAs)

  • D. Preshared keys

Question 58

Which of the following terms is also used to describe public-key encryption?

  • A. Asymmetric encryption

  • B. Symmetric encryption

  • C. Secret-key encryption

  • D. Hashing

Question 59

Which of the following statements are true regarding the following PRI configuration command? (Choose two.)

 Interface serial 1/0: 15 
  • A. This is an E1 PRI line.

  • B. D-channel signaling uses serial subinterface 15.

  • C. The channelized controller is located on Port 1 of Slot 0.

  • D. This command accesses configuration mode for the PRI B channels.

Question 60

How do you configure binary 8-zero substitution line-coding for a T1 PRI connection?

  • A. framing command

  • B. linecode command

  • C. binary-coding command

  • D. clock-source command

Question 61

Which of the following International Telecommunications Union (ITU) categories of ISDN protocols addresses how ISDN signaling and switching should operate?

  • A. Protocols beginning with E

  • B. Protocols beginning with Q

  • C. Protocols beginning with S

  • D. Protocols beginning with I

Question 62

Consider the following partial configuration on RouterA:

 Interface bri0       ip address 192.168.5.1 255.255.0.0       encapsulation ppp       ppp authentication chap       dialer idle-timeout 180       dialer map ip 192.168.5.2 name routerb 2055551234       dialer-group 1       access-list 100 deny tcp any any eq telnet       access-list 100 deny ip any any eq icmp       access-list 100 deny udp any any eq snmp       access-list 100 permit ip any any       dialer-list 1 protocol ip list 100 

Which conclusions can you draw about this ISDN BRI interfaced based on the information provided?

  • A. BRI0 is used for DDR.

  • B. BRI0 is used for MLP.

  • C. Ping traffic will trigger an ISDN call.

  • D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traffic will not trigger an ISDN call.

  • E. The dialer-list references an extended access list.

  • F. The dialer-list references a standard access list.

Question 63

Consider the following configuration excerpt:

 vpdn enable vpdn-group 1 accept dialin protocol pppoe virtual-template 1 interface atm 2/0.2 multipoint pvc 0/32 encapsulation aal5snap protocol pppoe interface virtual-template 1 ip addr 10.10.2.2 255.255.255.0 mtu 1492 

What is being configured on this router?

  • A. PPP over Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)(PPPoA)

  • B. PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE)

  • C. PPPoE over ATM

  • D. PPPoE over ISDN

Question 64

What is the most suitable backup technology that will allow the use of DDR between a branch office and central site that is currently using Frame Relay as its primary WAN connectivity?

  • A. Asynchronous dialup

  • B. ISDN

  • C. T1 line

  • D. DSL

Question 65

A customer requires a recommendation for the company's new WAN connection. You must connect two geographically dispersed regional offices. The offices need a connection suitable for high link utilization and long connection times at the lowest cost. What type of WAN connection do you recommend to connect these two large offices?

  • A. Asynchronous circuit-switched connection

  • B. On-demand circuit-switched connection

  • C. Packet-switched connection

  • D. Dedicated circuit-switched connection




CCNP BCRAN Remote Access Exam Cram 2 (Exam Cram 640 - XXX)
CCNP BCRAN Remote Access Exam Cram 2 (Exam Cram 640 - XXX)
ISBN: N/A
EAN: N/A
Year: 2003
Pages: 183

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