| Question 1 | Which definition correctly describes the broadcast transmission method? A. One copy of each frame is sent to every client that requires the data. B. A single copy of each frame is sent, using an address that reaches all clients. C. A single copy of each frame is sent, using a special address that allows each client to decide whether it wants to receive the frame. D. No frames are sent.
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| Question 2 | In which transmission method are frames replicated as needed for transmission to specific hosts? A. Unicast B. Multicast C. Broadcast D. Anycast
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| Question 3 | Which statement about multicast transmission is true? A. One copy of each packet is sent to every client. B. A new packet is sent each time the client requests it. C. Only one copy of each packet is sent, using an address that reaches all the clients. D. One copy of each packet is sent, using a special address that allows each client to choose whether it receives the packet.
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| Question 4 | Which of the following MAC addresses is a multicast address? A. 00-00-5E-0A-08-05 B. 00-01-5E-0A-08-05 C. 01-00-5E-0A-08-05 D. 01-00-5F-0A-08-05
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| Question 5 | IGMP query messages are addressed to the all-host group (224.0.0.1) with the TTL set to 1. What is the purpose of setting the TTL to 1? A. This ensures that all multicast routers see the query message. B. This ensures that all multicast routers forward the query message. C. This ensures flooding of the query message. D. This ensures the query message remains in the subnetwork.
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| Question 6 | Which of the following multicast address ranges are reserved? A. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B. 192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.100 C. 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 D. 234.0.0.0 to 234.0.0.255
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| Question 7 | ________ is a Cisco-developed protocol that allows Catalyst switches to learn about the existence of multicast clients from Cisco routers and Layer 3 switches. A. IGMP Version 1 B. IGMP Version 2 C. CGMP D. MCAST
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| Question 8 | You have a network monitoring probe installed in your campus LAN. You would like to monitor all the packets that emanate from a particular VLAN. What should you configure? A. SPAN B. RSPAN C. VSPAN D. IGMP
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| Question 9 | What is the purpose of the following command? Switch(config)# monitor session 1 source interface fastethernet 5/1 both A. This command configures the FastEthernet 5/1 interface for SPAN monitoring inbound and outbound traffic. B. This command configures the FastEthernet 5/1 interface as the destination SPAN port monitoring inbound and outbound traffic. C. This command configures the FastEthernet 5/1 interface as the source and destination port in SPAN. D. This command configures the FastEthernet 5/1 interface in switchport monitor mode.
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| Question 10 | You're contemplating the purchase of a Network Analysis module for your Catalyst 6500. What protocol does the NAM utilize to monitor and analyze traffic? A. ICMP B. SMTP C. TFTP D. CDP E. RMON
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| Question 11 | Examine the following command output. Which command was used to generate the output? my state = 13 -ACTIVE peer state = 1 -DISABLED Mode = Simplex Unit = Primary Unit ID = 1 Redundancy Mode (Operational) = Route Processor Redundancy Plus Redundancy Mode (Configured) = Route Processor Redundancy Plus Split Mode = Disabled Manual Swact = Disabled Reason: Simplex mode Communications = Down Reason: Simplex mode client count = 11 client_notification_TMR = 30000 milliseconds keep_alive TMR = 4000 milliseconds keep_alive count = 0 keep_alive threshold = 7 RF debug mask = 0x0 A. show redundancy B. show redundancy counters C. show redundancy switchover D. show redundancy states
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| Question 12 | You need to configure redundancy for the two supervisor engines you've installed. You're interested in a solution that allows switchover in two to four minutes. Which solution meets this requirement? A. RPR B. RPR+ C. HSRP D. VRRP
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| Question 13 | You're responsible for the network security of your campus network infrastructure. Which of the following are recommended security configurations for your Catalyst switches? (Choose all that apply.) A. Secure access to VTY ports B. Secure SNMP C. Secure physical access to the console D. Enable HTTP services and choose a non-default HTTP port E. Engage in CDP trimming
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| Question 14 | Which component of AAA services provides a method of collecting and sending security server information used for billing, auditing, and reporting? A. Authorization B. Accounting C. Authentication D. Auditing
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| Question 15 | You're considering port security in your Catalyst switch environment. You're examining the command: Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security [maximum value] violation {protect | restrict | shutdown} What does the maximum value option permit? A. The duration that a secured port permits workstation access B. The maximum number of MAC addresses that can be supported by the port C. The maximum number of frames that the port can receive in a given time interval D. The maximum number of frames that the port can send in a given time period
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| Question 16 | You're considering implementing 802.1X port-based authentication in your network. What role does your Catalyst switch play in this security scheme? A. Client B. Authentication server C. Authenticator D. Workstation
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| Question 17 | What command produces the following output? Secure Mac Address Table ----------------------------------------------------------- Vlan Mac Address Type Ports Remaining Age (mins) ---- ----------- ---- ----- ------------- 1 0001.0001.0001 SecureDynamic Fa5/1 15 (I) 1 0001.0001.0002 SecureDynamic Fa5/1 15 (I) 1 0001.0001.1111 SecureConfigured Fa5/1 16 (I) 1 0001.0001.1112 SecureConfigured Fa5/1 - 1 0001.0001.1113 SecureConfigured Fa5/1 - 1 0005.0005.0001 SecureConfigured Fa5/5 23 1 0005.0005.0002 SecureConfigured Fa5/5 23 1 0005.0005.0003 SecureConfigured Fa5/5 23 1 0011.0011.0001 SecureConfigured Fa5/11 25 (I) 1 0011.0011.0002 SecureConfigured Fa5/11 25 (I) ----------------------------------------------------------- Total Addresses in System: 10 Max Addresses limit in System: 1024 A. show port-security B. show port-security interface fastethernet 5/1 C. show port-security address D. show port-security MAC
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| Question 18 | Which of the following are valid actions that are permitted when using VACLs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Permit B. Redirect C. Deny D. Log
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| Question 19 | You're considering the implementation of private VLANs in your campus network. Which of the following is the correct description of a community port? A. A port that can communicate with all interfaces B. A port that has complete separation from other ports in the private VLAN, with the exception of the promiscuous port C. A port that communicates with other ports and the promiscuous port D. A port that cannot communicate with any other port
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| Question 20 | IP telephony, multiunit applications, content networking, and storage networking are all examples of what part of the Cisco AVVID architecture? |
| Question 21 | Which of the following are best practices for the server farm distribution layer? (Choose all that apply.) A. Deploy caching systems where appropriate B. Implement server load balancing C. Implement server content routing D. Deploy a single device with redundant logical elements
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| Question 22 | You're having trouble communicating with your switch from a terminal that's connected to the console port. Which of the following troubleshooting steps are appropriate? (Choose all that apply.) A. Ensure that the cable type is correct B. Ensure the terminal configuration matches the switch console port configuration C. Ensure that there is a console password configured D. Ensure that the cable pinouts are correct for the supervisor engine
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| Question 23 | Which of the following issues do VLAN designs help solve in a campus network? (Choose all that apply.) A. Efficient bandwidth utilization B. Security C. Load balancing D. Increased availability E. Isolation of failure domains
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| Question 24 | You need to assign the Fast Ethernet 5/1 port to VLAN number 20. What is the correct command to make this configuration? A. Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 B. Switch(config-if)#switchport vlan 20 C. Switch(config-if)#vlan 20 D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access vlan 20
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| Question 25 | You're verifying the VLAN configuration in your campus network. Which of the following commands produces the output shown here? Name: Gi0/1 Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: dynamic desirable Operational Mode: static access Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: negotiate Operational Trunking Encapsulation: native Negotiation of Trunking: On Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking VLANs Enabled: ALL Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001 Port Protected: Off Unknown Unicast Traffic: Allowed Unknown Multicast Traffic: Allowed Broadcast Suppression Level: 100 Multicast Suppression Level: 100 Unicast Suppression Level: 100 A. show interface switchport gigabitEthernet 0/1 B. show gigabitEthernet 0/1 C. show interface vlan gigabitEthernet 0/1 D. show interface gigabitEthernet 0/1 switchport
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| Question 26 | Which Dynamic Trunking Protocol option places an interface in permanent trunking mode and prevents the interface from generating DTP frames? A. access B. trunk C. nonegotiate D. dynamic desirable E. dynamic auto
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| Question 27 | Which of the following statements regarding 802.1Q native VLANs are correct? (Choose all that apply.) A. The native VLAN is the VLAN that a port is in when not in operational trunking mode. B. Native VLAN traffic is sent untagged on the network. C. The default native VLAN is 1000. D. Every 802.1Q port is assigned a PVID value based on the port ID.
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| Question 28 | You're being forced to troubleshoot your campus network because a trunk link cannot be established between two of your Catalyst switches. You're attempting to configure 802.1Q as the trunking mechanism. What are troubleshooting steps that you should perform? A. Ensure the interface mode configured at each end is valid B. Ensure compatible trunk encapsulation types C. Verify the VTP domain name and password at each end of the link D. Ensure the native VLAN matches at each end of the link
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| Question 29 | One of the most critical components of VTP is the configuration revision number. What is the configuration revision number on a transparent mode VTP device? |
| Question 30 | You're examining the different features available with VLAN Trunking Protocol. What is the purpose of VLAN pruning? A. VTP pruning uses VLAN advertisements to determine when a trunk connection is flooding traffic needlessly. B. VTP pruning reduces the number of VTP advertisements that switches must send. C. VTP pruning eliminates the need for a configuration revision number. D. VTP pruning eliminates the propagation of native VLAN frames.
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| Question 31 | You're troubleshooting your VTP configuration in your campus network. You cannot get VLAN information shared between two devices in the network. You've taken the following steps: Ensured that the VTP domain name is properly configured on both devices Verified that the devices are not in VTP transparent mode Verified that the password is set on both devices
What else should you troubleshoot? A. Verify that all switches are set to server mode B. Verify that all switches are VTP version 2 compatible C. Ensure that the switches are connected via at least one trunk link D. Verify that all switches are set to client mode
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| Question 32 | What is the default spanning tree priority value for a Cisco switch? A. 4096 B. 8192 C. 32,768 D. 0
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| Question 33 | Which of the following describes the Building Distribution block of the campus infrastructure? A. A module that contains end-user workstations, IP phones, and Layer 2 access switches that connect devices to the server farm B. A module that contains email and corporate servers providing application, file, print, email, and DNS services to internal users C. Aggregates the connectivity from the various elements of the Enterprise Edge functional area and routes the traffic into the Campus Backbone D. Aggregates the building access devices, often using Layer 3 switching; it also performs routing, QoS, and access control
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| Question 34 | VLANs operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Which of the following devices allow communication between VLANs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Hub B. Layer 2 switch C. Layer 3 switch D. Translational bridge E. Router
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| Question 35 | Which of the following commands assigns a port to a VLAN? A. Switch(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 vlan 3 B. Switch(config)# switchport mode access 3 vlan C. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access 3 vlan D. Switch(config-if)# switchport vlan 3 static E. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
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| Question 36 | Which of the following trunking protocols encapsulates the frame? A. 802.1Q B. ISL C. VTP D. 802.10
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| Question 37 | Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) helps prevent bridging loops in Cisco campus networks. Which of the following would cause STP to fail in its efforts to prevent loops? (Choose all that apply.) |
| Question 38 | Which type of multilayer switching uses a FIB? (Choose all that apply.) |
| Question 39 | You're examining the adjacency table in CEF-based multilayer switching through the use of the show adjacency command. Which type of adjacency entry is used for features that require special handling or for features that are not yet supported in conjunction with CEF switching paths? A. null adjacency B. punt adjacency C. glean adjacency D. next-hop adjacency
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| Question 40 | You're comparing redundancy features for your Catalyst 6500 Series switch. You've invested in dual supervisor engines for your Catalyst 6509. Which is not an advantage that RPR+ has over RPR? A. Reduced switchover time B. Online insertion and removal of the redundant supervisor engine C. Auto VLAN database configuration D. Running configuration is saved
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| Question 41 | Which technology uses ICMP router advertisements and router solicitation messages to allow a host to discover the addresses of operational routers on a subnet? A. HSRP B. VRRP C. IRDP D. OSPF
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| Question 42 | You're configuring HSRP in the redundant distribution layer of your campus network. You have routers configured with the following settings:
RouterA: Priority 200
IP address: 172.16.10.169
MAC: 0010.0c07.ac2f
Group 47
RouterB: Priority 150
IP address: 172.16.10.169
MAC: 0010.0c07.d000
Group 47
RouterC: Priority 125
IP address: 172.16.10.169
MAC: 0010.0c07.23a0
Group 47
RouterD: Priority 200
IP address: 172.16.10.82
MAC: 0010.0c07.45c3
Group 48
If RouterA fails, which system becomes the active router? A. RouterA B. RouterB C. RouterC D. RouterD E. None of the above
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| Question 43 | Which of the following HSRP states indicates that the router is a candidate for active router, causes the router to send periodic hello messages, and ensures that the router knows the virtual router IP address? A. initial B. listen C. standby D. speak E. active
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| Question 44 | What protocol provides redundancy for either a real IP address of a router or a virtual IP address shared among its members, and considers all nonmaster routers as backups? A. VRRP B. HSRP C. IRDP D. GLBP
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| Question 45 | You're interested in designing a redundant distribution layer in your campus network. You'd like to ensure that the standby members of the redundant group are not underutilized along with their upstream bandwidth. Which protocol should you consider? A. HSRP B. VRRP C. GLBP D. SRM
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| Question 46 | You're interested in configuring single router mode on your Catalyst 6500 switch. Which of the following commands enables this configuration? A. Switch(config)# single-router-mode B. Switch(config-r)# single-router-mode C. Switch(config-r-ha)# single-router-mode D. Switch(config-r)# srm
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| Question 47 | Which of the following commands correctly specifies an IP address of a server to be a member of an SLB server farm? A. Switch(config)# real 10.64.164.1 B. Switch(config-slb-sfarm)# real 10.64.164.1 C. Switch(config)# ip slb serverfarm 10.64.164.1 D. Switch(config-slb-sfarm)# ip slb serverfarm 10.64.164.1
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| Question 48 | What is a benefit of the auxiliary VLAN feature of Catalyst switches? A. Increased availably B. Easier network management C. Reduced bandwidth utilization D. Network segmentation and control
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| Question 49 | Which is not a network availability issue that QoS addresses? A. Jitter B. Delay C. Reliability D. Packet loss
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| Question 50 | Which queuing method provides strict priority queuing, enabling you to configure the priority status for a class within class-based weighted fair queuing? A. CQ B. PQ C. FIFO D. LLQ E. WFQ F. WRR
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| Question 51 | What is the purpose of the ToS field in an IP header? A. Identifies the type of payload in the IP packet B. Identifies network control information for the packet C. Assigns a priority to an IP packet as it traverses the network D. Indicates the proper queue for an IP packet as it traverses the network
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| Question 52 | On which network links is LFI especially useful? A. On fast links whose speed is greater than 1.544Mbps B. On slow-speed links whose speed is less than 64Kbps C. On slow-speed links whose speed is less than 768Kbps D. On slow-speed links whose speed is less than 1.544Mbps
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| Question 53 | Weighted random early detection (WRED) generally drops packets selectively based on what value? |
| Question 54 | Which Cisco IOS command displays priority queuing output? |
| Question 55 | You're interested in assigning a traffic policy that you've created to an interface in your campus network. What is the correct command to accomplish this? A. class-map B. policy-map C. service-policy D. mls qos E. mls qos trust
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| Question 56 | What module for the 6000 and 6500 Series switches provides a network management and monitoring solution? |
| Question 57 | Which command correctly configures a SPAN interface to monitor only ingress traffic? A. monitor session 1 source interface fastethernet 5/1 rx B. monitor session 1 source interface fastethernet 5/1 tx C. monitor session 1 destination interface fastethernet 5/1 D. monitor session 1 source interface fastethernet 5/1 both
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| Question 58 | Which of the following commands globally enables AAA on a Cisco switch? |
| Question 59 | You're considering the use of port security to help secure your enterprise campus network. You'd like an interface to enter an error-disabled state when a security violation occurs. What command should you use? A. Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 1 violation protect B. Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 1 violation restrict C. Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 1 violation shutdown D. Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 1 violation null
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| Question 60 | Which of the following Metro Ethernet tunneling options features the drawback of poor scalability? |
