The Security Exam Guide TestTaker s Cumulative Practice Exam

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The questions in this practice exam are based on topics that have been presented to you in Chapters 2 through 9 of this book. The answers to the following questions as well as the chapter headers they are taken from are provided at the end of the exam.

If you can answer all of the questions in this practice exam and the practice exams included with the accompanying CD-ROM correctly, as well as understand the theory behind each of the topics mentioned, there is a good possibility that you may pass the CompTIA Security+ examination.

Note 

This exam is more difficult than the real Security+ exam. So suit up, put your foot soldier’s armor on, pass this test, and then go take the real one. Good luck!

1. 

Which of the following suggestions should not be taken when creating a strong password?

  1. A strong password should be a minimum of seven characters in length.

  2. The password should contain a combination of upper and lowercase letters.

  3. There should be at least one number contained in the password.

  4. The password should contain at least one of the following characters: !@#$%^&*.

  5. A password should be a word from a dictionary, person’s name, family name, phone number, birth date, or favorite phrase.

  6. None of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 2 , authentication

2. 

Which of the following best describes two-factor authentication?

  1. Combining a physical trait or a possession (magnetic card, key, and so on) with a password or PIN.

  2. Two User IDs.

  3. Two security guards.

  4. Two passwords.

  5. SSO.

  6. All of the above.

a, question taken from chapter 2 , authentication

3. 

Which access control security model supports the following statement?

  1. “If user B has a lower security level than User A, User B should not be able to write over User A’s information.”

  2. Clark-Wilson/

  3. Biba.

  4. Bell-LaPadula.

  5. Toback-Crayton.

  6. Non-interference.

  7. All of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 2 , access control systems fundamentals

4. 

Which of the following can allow users access to enterprise-wide resources with one sign-on?

  1. Open source.

  2. Netlogon Service.

  3. SSO.

  4. SESAME.

  5. Relativ6 authentication.

  6. All of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 2 , authentication

5. 

Which of the following is currently the most secure biometric device available?

  1. Fingerprint scanner.

  2. Retina scanner.

  3. Encrypted-key scanner.

  4. Brain scanner.

  5. Token scanner.

  6. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 2 , authentication

6. 

Which of the following is not a valid file system access right?

  1. Read.

  2. Write.

  3. Delete.

  4. Execute.

  5. Undelete.

  6. All are valid.

e, question taken from chapter 2 , authorization

7. 

Which access control type is based on the roles users play within an organization?

  1. Task-based.

  2. Mandatory.

  3. DACL.

  4. Lattice-based.

  5. Role-based.

  6. RADIUS.

  7. Rule-based.

  8. None of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 2 , access control techniques

8. 

Which of the following is a protocol used to transfer authentication and authorization data between a dial-in client and a server that supports PAP, CHAP, PPP, and UNIX login authentication methods?

  1. TBAC.

  2. LBAC.

  3. DACL.

  4. MAC.

  5. RADIUS.

  6. None of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 2 , access control techniques

9. 

Developed by Cisco©, which remote authentication protocol is typically implemented on UNIX servers?

  1. TBAC.

  2. LBAC.

  3. TACACS+.

  4. RADIUS.

  5. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 2 access control techniques

10. 

Which of the following services and protocols should you consider removing from a system if they are not needed?

  1. Computer Browser service.

  2. IIS Admin service.

  3. FTP Server service.

  4. Spooler service.

  5. Netlogon service.

  6. DHCP.

  7. All of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 2 , nonessential services and protocols

11. 

When someone pretends to be someone else in order to gain information or unauthorized access, what are they practicing?

  1. Trojan-like behavior.

  2. Spoofing.

  3. Public persuasion.

  4. Good people skills.

  5. Social engineering.

  6. None of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 2 , attack methods

12. 

If you are using UNIX, it would be considered good practice to audit which of the following items?

  1. .rhosts.

  2. /etc/password.

  3. Use of Setgid.

  4. Bin files.

  5. All of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 2 , auditing

13. 

By default, where are passwords stored in UNIX?

  1. .rhosts.

  2. /etc/password.

  3. /etc/bin.

  4. /rhosts/bin/password.

  5. .hosts.

  6. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 9 , unix/linux security

14. 

Which of the following guidelines should you follow when using RAS?

  1. Users should use different passwords for RAS dial in than they do for domain authentication.

  2. The time frame users can log in should be limited to business need.

  3. Callback security should be used when at all possible.

  4. RAS server and your remote clients should always have the latest operating system service packs.

  5. All of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 3 , ras (remote access service)

15. 

What does 802.1X technology use that enables it to work with wireless, Ethernet, and Token Ring networks?

  1. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).

  2. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP).

  3. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).

  4. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

  5. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 3 , 802.1x

16. 

What is the main function of S/MIME?

  1. It provides authenticity and privacy for e-mail messages in MIME format.

  2. It is used to scan IMAP and POP3 mail services.

  3. It allows RSA algorithms to encrypt a session key with a receiver’s public key.

  4. It allows antivirus programs to scan e-mail attachments.

  5. None of the above.

a, question taken from chapter 3 , e, question taken from mail security

17. 

Which of the following are commonly used security protocols that provide transport security through Internet browsers provided by Netscape and Microsoft?

  1. HTTPS and IPX/SPX.

  2. SSL and TLS.

  3. TCP/IP and SMTP.

  4. FTP and S/FTP.

  5. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 3 , web security

18. 

Which technique is often used to quarantine applets that appear suspicious or malicious?

  1. Script pots.

  2. Sandboxing.

  3. Applet sniffing.

  4. Data mining.

  5. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 3 , web security

19. 

Which is the most secure type of FTP?

  1. FTSP.

  2. TFTP/S.

  3. S/FTP.

  4. FTP/S.

  5. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 3 , file transfer

20. 

Certified engineers that can properly recommend and assist you with integration plans as well as keep you in line with federal, state, and local regulations regarding wireless networks will typically perform what?

  1. A corporate security analysis.

  2. An antivirus scan.

  3. A host-based intrusion analysis.

  4. A professional site survey.

  5. None of the above.

d, question taken from chapter 3 , wireless security

21. 

This layer establishes, holds, and controls connections between two applications. It provides checkpoint and synchronization service between two communication connections. Security between two connections is also handled at this layer. Which OSI layer is being described?

  1. Application.

  2. Presentation.

  3. Session.

  4. Transport.

  5. Network.

  6. Data Link.

  7. Physical.

c, question taken from chapter 4 , open systems interconnection (osi) model and layers

22. 

Which statement is not true concerning FDDI rings?

  1. Repeaters are used to boost the signal on an FDDI ring.

  2. An FDDI ring in a LAN environment has a distance capability of up to 200km (124 miles).

  3. FDDI rings often serve as network backbones for WANs.

  4. FDDI uses token passing technology.

  5. None of the above statements is true.

a, question taken from chapter 4 , network topology

23. 

When part of an internal network has been made accessible to outside sources, that part of the internal network is referred to as?

  1. An Internet.

  2. An intranet.

  3. An extranet.

  4. A VLAN.

  5. A security hole.

c, question taken from chapter 4 , network topology

24. 

Of the following, which is the process of establishing a known footprint or baseline of a system’s usage of such things as CPU (Central Processing Unit) utilization, disk utilization, use of user rights, user logins, file and folder access over time, and analyzing the system for any deviation from the system’s baseline or “normal” behavior?

  1. Network-Based IDS (NIDS).

  2. Host-Based IDS (HIDS).

  3. Signature Intrusion Analysis.

  4. Statistical Intrusion Analysis.

  5. None of the above.

d, question taken from chapter 4 , intrusion detection systems (idses)

25. 

A solid incident response procedure should include which of the following items?

  1. Written procedures.

  2. Actual steps that will be implemented to correct, repair, or restore whatever has been damaged.

  3. Who will be notified, how they will be notified, and when they will be notified

  4. A written sign off that the plan was tested.

  5. All of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 4 , intrusion detection systems (idses)

26. 

The advantage of this type of router is its ability to analyze and drop or pass packets quickly. The major disadvantage of this technology is that packets are not typically analyzed beyond source and destination addresses. What type of firewall or router is being described?

  1. A Stateful inspection firewall.

  2. A packet-filtering router.

  3. A multi-homed gateway.

  4. An application proxy.

  5. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 4 , network countermeasures

27. 

Which of the following best describes DMZ?

  1. It is a dedicated switching technology that transmits data in fixed length 53-byte units called cells.

  2. It is a neutral area between an internal network and the Internet that typically contains one host system or a small network of systems.

  3. It is used to hide internal network IP addresses from external network sources.

  4. It is much faster than X.25 and can take advantage of T1 (1.544 Mbps) and T3 (Mbps) speeds.

b, question taken from chapter 4 , network countermeasures

28. 

Which of the following are not physical controls that are not commonly implemented in order to place a “barrier” or form of protection between unauthorized personal and sensitive locations or data?

  1. Turnstiles.

  2. Mantraps.

  3. Guards.

  4. Dogs.

  5. HVAC systems.

  6. All are physical controls.

e, question taken from chapter 6 , physical security

29. 

Which of the following are important considerations when determining a new site location for your company or business?

  1. A site located in an area with a low crime rate.

  2. A geographically stable site. For example, no fault lines, low flood area, no trash dumps.

  3. A site with multiple access paths into and out of the site location.

  4. A site located away from airline, railway, and major construction paths.

  5. All of the above.

  6. None of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 6 , physical security

30. 

Which of the following types of extinguishers are the most common and are considered effective at extinguishing chemical, electrical, and normal wood burning fires?

  1. Type A.

  2. Type ABC.

  3. Type BC.

  4. Halon.

  5. Carbon Dioxide (CO2).

  6. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 6 , physical security

31. 

Which backup strategy is the most efficient for backups and that includes a daily, weekly, and monthly backup schedule?

  1. Incremental.

  2. Tar.

  3. GFS (Grandfather-Father-Son).

  4. Full.

  5. Differential.

  6. Copy.

  7. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 6 , disaster recovery

32. 

This provides excellent fault tolerance and good performance. It stores parity information across all disks in the disk array and provides concurrent disk reads and writes. It is the most popular RAID implementation. Which RAID level is it?

  1. 0.

  2. 1.

  3. 3.

  4. 5.

  5. 32.

  6. 64.

d, question taken from chapter 6 , business continuity

33. 

The grouping together of independent servers into one large logical system is called what?

  1. Collective engineering.

  2. Server collaboration.

  3. Server clustering.

  4. Logical conglomeration.

  5. RAID Web farming.

  6. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 6 , business continuity

34. 

In order to store passwords securely, some systems only maintain a copy of the password’s ______.

  1. Hop.

  2. Cluster.

  3. Key length.

  4. Hash.

  5. Bit length.

  6. None of the above.

d, question taken from chapter 5 , algorithms

35. 

One advantage of Digital Signatures (DSes) is that they can bind a person to an agreement. Which of the following describes what this aspect of a DS provides?

  1. Non-negotiation.

  2. Non-repudiation.

  3. Non-disclosure.

  4. Nolo contendere.

  5. Non-stipulation.

  6. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 5 , concepts of using cryptography

36. 

Which of the following best describes the method used by an algorithm to produce subkeys?

  1. Key-mating.

  2. Key-division.

  3. Key-branching.

  4. Key-splitting.

  5. Key-scheduling.

  6. None of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 5 , algorithms

37. 

The cryptographic strength of the Diffie-Hellman algorithm is based on which mathematical problem?

  1. Prime number.

  2. Discrete logarithm.

  3. Factoring.

  4. Long division.

  5. Logistic discretion.

  6. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 5 , algorithms

38. 

Which of the following is a disadvantage of incorporating DNSSEC with a DNS server?

  1. Enables masquerading.

  2. Domain names cannot be resolved to IP addresses.

  3. Database size is increased.

  4. Uses smaller key sizes resulting in weaker encryption.

  5. Adding DNS protocol extensions can reduce database integrity.

  6. All of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 5 , standards and protocols

39. 

Which standard does a typical digital certificate conform to?

  1. X.509.

  2. ANSI.

  3. NIST.

  4. DES.

  5. RFC 822.

  6. RFC 733.

a, question taken from chapter 5 , public key infrastructure (pki)

40. 

If a company maintains copies of their employee’s crypto-keys, which type of key should they revoke first if the employee were to quit?

  1. Encryption key.

  2. Subkey.

  3. Shared key.

  4. Signing key.

  5. Access-control key.

  6. Escrow key.

d, question taken from chapter 5 , key management/certificate lifecycle

41. 

Which component of an expert system acts as an intermediary and searches a knowledge base for patterns that are relevant to the user’s query?

  1. AI.

  2. Neuron.

  3. Parallel processor.

  4. Rule-based program.

  5. Inference engine.

  6. Paradigm.

e, question taken from chapter 7 , knowledge, question taken from based systems

42. 

Which type of KBS attempts to emulate biological systems like the human brain?

  1. Pattern matching.

  2. Rule of thumb.

  3. Waterfall.

  4. Neural network.

  5. Expert system.

  6. Fountain.

d, question taken from chapter 7 , knowledge, question taken from based systems

43. 

In the SDLC, which of the following describes user participation during beta testing?

  1. Expert testing.

  2. Inference testing.

  3. Acceptance testing.

  4. Disposition testing.

  5. Novice testing.

  6. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 7 , system development life cycle (sdlc)

44. 

In a database, what is the function of a primary key?

  1. Uniquely identifies records in a table.

  2. Encrypts the database.

  3. Connects cells.

  4. Connects tuples.

  5. Digs into a data mine.

  6. None of the above.

a, question taken from chapter 7 , databases

45. 

Web spiders that crawl around the Internet looking for data are known as which type of application?

  1. Applets.

  2. Viruses.

  3. Agents.

  4. ActiveX.

  5. Objects.

  6. Neural networks.

c, question taken from chapter 7 , applications

46. 

One method of hardening a mail server is to implement secure POP3 access. Which protocol is used to encrypt POP3 logons?

  1. SSH.

  2. SSL.

  3. DSS.

  4. SMTP.

  5. IMAP.

  6. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 7 , applications

47. 

The use of polyinstantiation without the proper database-wide updating can cause a loss in data ______.

  1. Confidentiality.

  2. Encryption.

  3. Repudiation.

  4. Translation.

  5. Integrity.

  6. All of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 7 , databases

48. 

In a rule-based expert system, once a rule has been matched to a user’s query, which parameter defines the action to be taken?

  1. If.

  2. Then.

  3. Act.

  4. And.

  5. Or.

  6. Def.

b, question taken from chapter 7 , knowledge, question taken from based systems

49. 

Which of the following computer laws prohibits eavesdropping by way of wire or oral communications?

  1. 1968 Abycus Act .

  2. 1974 Federal Privacy Act.

  3. 1986 Electronic Communications Privacy Act.

  4. 1987 Computer Security Act.

  5. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 8 , law

50. 

Which of the following is the most commonly committed computer crime?

  1. Data diddling.

  2. Business and financial attacks.

  3. Embezzlement.

  4. Fraud.

  5. Salami attacks.

  6. Pepperoni attacks.

  7. Grudge attacks.

a, question taken from chapter 8 , computer crime

51. 

In order for a company to have or maintain an advantage over its competitor, what must not be divulged?

  1. Trademarks.

  2. Business and financial policies.

  3. Trade secrets.

  4. Patents.

  5. Copyrights.

  6. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 8 , law

52. 

This type of attack is not usually launched with the intent of producing a financial gain or causing harm. Younger enthusiasts such as college students and script kiddies most often carry this type of attack out. What type of attack is being described?

  1. Grudge attack.

  2. Postgraduate attack.

  3. Hearsay attack.

  4. Adolescent script attack.

  5. Fun attack.

  6. Data diddling.

e, question taken from chapter 8 , computer crime

53. 

When does the chain of evidence custody begin?

  1. After the proper authorities have been contacted.

  2. When the first responsible person alerts management.

  3. When the first piece of evidence is collected.

  4. When the intruder is identified.

  5. When the chain of evidence custody report is first documented.

  6. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 8 , investigation

54. 

Which of the following is located at Purdue University and is one of the largest computer security research groups in the world?

  1. AIB.

  2. TPUCSRG.

  3. Gramm, Leach, and Bliley.

  4. IAB.

  5. COAST.

  6. None of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 8 , investigation

55. 

Which of the following are good security practices when securing Microsoft Windows?

  1. Disable FTP services.

  2. Enable auditing.

  3. Rename the Administrator account.

  4. Set strong passwords on all accounts, and mix characters and numbers.

  5. Disable the Guest account (and other unnecessary accounts).

  6. All of the above.

f, question taken from chapter 9 , operating systems security

56. 

Which of the following is usually associated with disgruntled employee syndrome, is also referred to as slag code, and is most often activated when a certain time is reached or a certain event occurs?

  1. Trojan horse.

  2. Worm.

  3. Logic bomb.

  4. Stealth horse.

  5. Polymorphic worm.

  6. None of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 9 , computer virus types

57. 

Which of the following is not a remote administration, Trojan horse-style application?

  1. W32.Nimda.A@mm.

  2. NetBus.

  3. Backdoor.NetBus.

  4. BackOrifice.

  5. BO Trojan.

  6. None of the above.

a, question taken from chapter 9 , computer virus types

58. 

This was considered to be one of the first stealth viruses. It would first hide itself to avoid detection by virus scanners. It would then infect a hard drives boot sector. What was this virus called?

  1. Nimda.

  2. admiN.

  3. Backdoor7.

  4. The Brain.

  5. BO Trojan.

  6. W32.Nimda.A@mm.

  7. None of the above.

d, question taken from chapter 9 , computer virus types

59. 

Which of the following topologies is considered the most redundant?

  1. Full-bus.

  2. Partial-star.

  3. Full-mesh.

  4. Partial-mesh.

  5. Full-star.

  6. All of the above are equally redundant.

c, question taken from chapter 4 , network topology

60. 

Digital signatures can provide proof that a transaction or contract has occurred so that it is not denied at a later time. What is being described here?

  1. Vulnerability.

  2. Public/private key pairs.

  3. Weak keys.

  4. Non-repudiation.

  5. Cryptography.

d, question taken from chapter 2 , basic terminology

61. 

What is used to limit a subject’s access to an object?

  1. Access right.

  2. Buffer.

  3. DOS.

  4. Hash.

  5. SATAN.

a, question taken from chapter 2 , basic terminology

62. 

Which of the following is a computer program (virus) designed to duplicate itself again and again until it exhausts system resources?

  1. Cipher.

  2. Worm.

  3. Trojan horse.

  4. Stealth.

  5. All of the above.

  6. None of the above.

b, question taken from chapter 2 basic terminology and chapter 9 , computer virus types

63. 

These can be used to monitor network traffic and weaknesses and can also be used to steal passwords, user IDs, or credit card information. What are they?

  1. Firewalls.

  2. Auditors.

  3. Loggers.

  4. Sniffers.

  5. Enraptures.

  6. All of the above.

d, question taken from chapter 2 , test tips

64. 

Hijackers and attackers often create or intercept these and use them to manipulate files on users computers. What are they?

  1. User profiles and system policies.

  2. Fingerprint and retina patterns.

  3. Java scripts and applets.

  4. Tokens and SAMS.

  5. Policies and permissions.

  6. DTEs and DCEs.

  7. All of the above.

c, question taken from chapter 3 , test tips

65. 

Which of the following represent benefits of implementing Single Sign-Ons?

  1. Users only have to sign on one time to access enterprise-wide resources.

  2. The risks involved with individual’s users having to remember multiple user IDs and passwords are eliminated or reduced.

  3. Administrative overhead is reduced.

  4. None of the above.

  5. All of the above.

e, question taken from chapter 6 , privilege management

66. 

(BONUS QUESTION!) It is likely that the Security+ exam will expect you to have knowledge of which of the following viruses and the major virus category types they are associated with?

  1. NetBus.

  2. Nimda.

  3. Brain.

  4. Backdoor7.

  5. BackOrifice.

  6. All of the above.

f, question taken from chapter 9 , computer virus types

Answers

1. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Authentication”

2. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Authentication”

3. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Access Control Systems Fundamentals”

4. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Authentication”

5. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Authentication”

6. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Authorization”

7. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Access Control Techniques”

8. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Access Control Techniques”

9. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 2 “Access Control Techniques”

10. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Nonessential Services and Protocols”

11. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Attack Methods”

12. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Auditing”

13. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 9, “UNIX/Linux Security”

14. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “RAS (Remote Access Service)”

15. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “802.1X”

16. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “E, Question Taken From mail Security”

17. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “Web Security”

18. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “Web Security”

19. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “File Transfer”

20. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “Wireless Security”

21. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model and Layers”

22. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Network Topology”

23. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Network Topology”

24. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Intrusion Detection Systems (IDSes)”

25. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Intrusion Detection Systems (IDSes)”

26. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Network Countermeasures”

27. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Network Countermeasures”

28. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 6, “Physical Security”

29. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 6, “Physical Security”

30. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 6, “Physical Security”

31. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 6, “Disaster Recovery”

32. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 6, “Business Continuity”

33. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 6, “Business Continuity”

34. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 5, “Algorithms”

35. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 5, “Concepts of Using Cryptography”

36. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 5, “Algorithms”

37. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 5, “Algorithms”

38. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 5, “Standards and Protocols”

39. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 5, “Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)”

40. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 5, “Key Management/Certificate Lifecycle”

41. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “Knowledge, Question Taken From based Systems”

42. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “Knowledge, Question Taken From based Systems”

43. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)”

44. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “Databases”

45. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “Applications”

46. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “Applications”

47. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “Databases”

48. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 7, “Knowledge, Question Taken From based Systems”

49. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 8, “Law”

50. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 8, “Computer Crime”

51. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 8, “Law”

52. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 8, “Computer Crime”

53. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 8, “Investigation”

54. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 8, “Investigation”

55. 

F, Question Taken From Chapter 9, “Operating Systems Security”

56. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 9, “Computer Virus Types”

57. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 9, “Computer Virus Types”

58. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 9, “Computer Virus Types”

59. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 4, “Network Topology”

60. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Basic Terminology”

61. 

A, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Basic Terminology”

62. 

B, Question Taken From Chapter 2 “Basic Terminology” and Chapter 9, “Computer Virus Types”

63. 

D, Question Taken From Chapter 2, “Test Tips”

64. 

C, Question Taken From Chapter 3, “Test Tips”

65. 

E, Question Taken From Chapter 6, “Privilege Management”

66. 

F, Question Taken From Chapter 9, “Computer Virus Types”



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The Security+ Exam Guide (TestTaker's Guide Series)
Security + Exam Guide (Charles River Media Networking/Security)
ISBN: 1584502517
EAN: 2147483647
Year: 2003
Pages: 136

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