Practice Questions

Question 1	Which of the following security policies would identify that a user may be fined for using email to run a personal business? A. Acceptable use B. Privacy C. Due care D. Compliance E. Separation of duties F. Need to know
A1:	Answer D is correct. Security policy compliance statements detail the sanctions that may result from violations of acceptable use policies. Answer A is incorrect because although this appears to be a violation of acceptable use, details of the sanctions resulting from the violation are detailed within the compliance policy. Answers B, C, E, and F are also incorrect because they detail individual policies for which the compliance policy may detail sanctions if violated, but they would not be used to detail these sanctions individually.
Question 2	Which of the following environmental considerations would be of the greatest concern when planning to perform in-place hardware upgrades? A. Temperature control B. Humidity control C. Static dissipation D. Vibration isolation
A2:	Answer C is correct. When planning to perform hardware maintenance, it is important to remember to plan for dissipation of static through the use of grounding wrist straps and antistatic pads. Answers A and B are incorrect because, although both temperature and humidity may play a role in antistatic planning, they are not directly applicable here because an in-place upgrade does not involve a significant change from the normal operating environment of the system. Answer D is incorrect because vibration is not directly of concern during a normal upgrade scenario, although care to avoid breakage is important.
Question 3	An attacker offers her business card as an IT solution provider and then later causes a user's computer to appear to fail. What is this an example of? A. Reverse social engineering B. Social engineering C. Separation of duties D. Inverse social engineering
A3:	Answer A is correct. Reverse social engineering involves an attacker convincing the user that she is a legitimate IT authority, causing the user to solicit her assistance. Answer B is incorrect because social engineering is when an intruder tricks a user into giving him private information. Answer C is incorrect because separation of duties is when two users are assigned a part of a task that both of them need to complete. Answer D is incorrect because it is a bogus answer.
Question 4	Why is it important to protect systems from line-of-sight monitoring? [Choose the three best answers.] A. Remote monitoring may allow an attacker to observe standard operational routines. B. An attacker may learn a user's logon credentials. C. Data may be directly observed through a telescope . D. Electromagnetic detection of wireless signals could compromise sensitive data.
A4:	Answers A, B, and C are correct. Attackers with direct line-of-sight access may observe operational routines, user logon and password keystrokes, or raw data used to illuminate data transmission status readouts. Answer D is incorrect because electromagnetic remote monitoring of wireless signals is not limited to the line of sight.
Question 5	What is the difference between a wet-pipe and a dry-pipe fire-suppression system? A. A dry-pipe system uses air to suppress fire, whereas a wet-pipe system uses water. B. A dry-pipe system uses dry chemicals, whereas a wet-pipe system uses wet chemicals. C. A wet-pipe system has water in the pipe at all times, whereas in a dry-pipe system water is used but is held back by a valve until a certain temperature is reached. D. A wet-pipe system uses wet chemicals that deploy after the pipe loses air pressure, whereas a dry-pipe system uses dry chemicals that deploy before the pipe loses air pressure.
A5:	Answer C is correct. A wet-pipe system constantly has water in it. In dry pipe systems, water is used but is held back by a valve until a certain temperature is reached. Therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
Question 6	Which of the following aspects of disaster recovery planning details how fast an ISP must have a new Frame Relay connection configured to an alternate site? A. Impact and risk assessment B. Disaster recovery plan C. Disaster recovery policies D. Service-level agreement
A6:	Answer D is correct. Service-level agreements establish the contracted requirements for service through utilities, facility management, and ISPs. Answer A is incorrect because risk assessment is used to identify areas that must be addressed in disaster recovery provisions. Answers B and C are incorrect because, although the disaster recovery plan and its policies may include details of the service-level agreement's implementation, neither is the best answer in this case.
Question 7	Which type of backup requires the least amount of time to restore in the event of a total loss? A. Full B. Daily C. Differential D. Incremental
A7:	Answer A is correct. A full backup includes a copy of all data, so it may be used to directly restore all data and settings as of the time of the last backup. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because daily, differential, and incremental backups all require a full backup as well as additional backup files to restore from a total loss of data.
Question 8	Which of the following statements best describes a disaster recovery plan (DRP)? A. A DRP reduces the impact of a hurricane on a facility. B. A DRP is an immediate action plan used to bring a business back online immediately after a disaster has struck. C. A DRP attempts to manage risks associated with theft of equipment. D. A DRP plans for automatic failover of critical services to redundant offsite systems.
A8:	Answer B is correct. A DRP is an immediate action plan to be implemented after a disaster. Answer A is incorrect because it describes physical disasters. Answer C is incorrect because it describes loss prevention. Answer D is incorrect because it describes a business continuity plan.
Question 9	Which of the following are examples of social engineering? [Choose the two best answers.] A. An attacker configures a packet sniffer to monitor user logon credentials. B. An attacker sets off a fire alarm so that he can access a secured area when the legitimate employees are evacuated. C. An attacker waits until legitimate users have left and sneaks into the server room through the raised floor. D. An attacker unplugs a user's network connection and then offers to help try to correct the problem. E. An attacker obtains an IT office T-shirt from a local thrift store and takes a user's computer for service.
A9:	Answers D and E are correct. Social engineering attacks involve tricking a user into providing the attacker with access rights or operational details. Answer A is incorrect because packet sniffing is a form of a network security threat. Answers B and C are incorrect because they involve physical access control risks rather than social engineering.
Question 10	Full backups are made weekly on Sunday at 1:00 a.m., and incremental backups are made on weekdays at 1:00 a.m. If a drive failure causes a total loss of data at 8:00 a.m. on Tuesday morning, what is the minimum number of backup files that must be used to restore the lost data? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. Five
A10:	Answer C is correct. Sunday's full backup must be installed, followed by Monday's incremental backup and finally Tuesday morning's incremental backup. This will recover all data as of 1:00 a.m. Tuesday morning. Answers A and B are incorrect because a full backup Tuesday morning would be required to allow a single-file recovery of all data, whereas a differential backup on Tuesday morning would be required so that only two backup files would be needed. Answers D and E are incorrect because no files from before the last full backup would be required.