Answer Key Explanations


Question 1

Answer C is correct. The Distribution layer is the consolidation point for Access layer devices. Security and QoS are often found at this layer. Answer B is incorrect because the Core layer features redundancy and the largest bandwidth connections. Answer A is incorrect because the Access layer is also known as the desktop layer. This layer features the devices that require access to the network. Answer D is incorrect because there is no Desktop layer in the Cisco Model.

Question 2

Answers A, C, and D are correct. The use of VLSM helps to eliminate IP address waste. For example, if only two IP addresses are needed for a point-to-point serial interface, an appropriate mask can be used that provides just two addresses. VLSM promotes route summarization, which reduces the size of IP routing tables. VLSM also promotes hierarchical network designs that feature summarization. Answer B is incorrect because VLSM is not supported by all dynamic protocols. It is supported only in "second generation" classless routing protocols.

Question 3

Answer A is correct. 192.16.12.0/22 enables the 4 networks described to be summarized. The 22 bit mask masks all the "common bits" in the four networks. Answers B and D are incorrect because the network number would not encompass the 12, 13, and 14 networks. Answer C is incorrect because it would encompass only the 12 and 13 networks.

Question 4

Answers A, B, and C are correct. IPv6 features half of the previous IPv4 header fields. This promotes easier packet processing, enhanced performance, and greater routing efficiency. The IPv6 headers enable direct routing data storage and faster routing data retrieval with 64-bit aligned fields. Answer D is incorrect because IPv6 routers no longer perform fragmentation.

Question 5

Answers A, B, and D are correct. Colons separate a series of 16-bit hexadecimal fields that represent IPv6 addresses. Leading 0s are optional. Successive fields of 0s can be represented as "::" only once in an address. Answer C is incorrect because the address in option c attempts to substitute the "::" notation too many times.

Question 6

Answer D is correct. An inside global IP address is an address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network. Answer A is incorrect because the inside local address is the IP address of an inside host, as it appears on the inside network. Answer B is incorrect because the outside local address is an address of a host in the outside network as it appears to the inside network. Answer C is incorrect because the outside global address is the address of the external host as it appears on the outside network.

Question 7

Answer D is correct. If you configure a route map to use in conjunction with an access list for NAT, an extended translation entry is generated in the NAT translation table. Answer A is incorrect. Route maps do not reduce the overhead that NAT adds to the routing process. Answer B is incorrect because these maps provide no additional means of security. Answer C is incorrect. Route maps do not simplify the translation table ”in fact, they make it more complex.

Question 8

Answer A is correct. To adjust ODR network timers, use the timers basic router configuration command. To restore the default timers, use the no form of this command.

Answer B is incorrect. Notice that timers basic is a router configuration command, not a global configuration command. Answers C and D are incorrect because there is no such command as cdp timers . Answer E is incorrect because it is possible to modify the default timers.

Question 9

Answers B, D, E, F, and G are correct. Classless protocols transmit the subnet mask information with routing updates. As a result, VLSM may be utilized. EIGRP, OSPF, IS-IS, BGP, and RIP v2 are all classless. Answer A and C are incorrect. IGRP and RIP v1 are classful routing protocols. They do not pass subnet mask information in their updates.

Question 10

Answers A and C are correct. EIGRP is an advanced distance vector routing protocol. Because it exhibits some link state behaviors, it is considered a hybrid protocol. EIGRP engages in automatic summarization by default. Answer B is incorrect because EIGRP is a classless routing protocol that behaves as if it were classful. Answer D is incorrect because it relies upon a composite metric. BGP relies upon path attributes as a metric.

Question 11

Answer D is correct. To configure manual summarization in RIP v2, use the ip summary-address rip command, followed by the network address and mask. Answer A is incorrect because manual summarization is possible in RIP v2. It is not possible in RIP v1. Answer B is incorrect. You do not configure manual summarization in config-router mode. Answer C is incorrect. The correct interface configuration command is ip summary-address rip , not ip summary-address .

Question 12

Answer C is correct. IGRP features the best ( lowest ) administrative distance at 100. Answers A, B and D are incorrect. RIPv2 features an administrative distance of 120. OSPF is 110. External EIGRP is 170.

Question 13

Answer D is correct. BGP uses TCP as its transport protocol. As such, it takes advantage of TCP windowing for reliability. Answer A is incorrect.

IGRP uses simple best-effort delivery. Answers B and C are incorrect because EIGRP and OSPF both require a one-to-one window mechanism; there is one update and one acknowledgement required.

Question 14

Answer B is correct. The default hello time for EIGRP over Ethernet media is 5 seconds. Answer D is incorrect. The default hello time for EIGRP over multipoint circuits with bandwidth less than or equal to T1 is 60 seconds. Answers A and C are incorrect because 2 seconds and 30 seconds are not valid default helot times.

Question 15

Answer C is correct. EIGRP functions at the Transport layer and uses protocol number 88. Answers A and D are incorrect. EIGRP does not function at the Data Link Layer, nor the Session layer. Answer B is incorrect. EIGRP does use the Network layer to exchange routing information, but it is still considered a Transport layer protocol.

Question 16

Answer B is correct. The SRTT stands for smooth round trip timer. This indicates the average time it takes to send and receive packets from a neighbor. Answer A is incorrect. The RTO is the time in milliseconds that the router waits for an acknowledgement before retransmission. Answer C is incorrect. The hold time value specifies the maximum time to wait without receiving anything from a neighbor. Answer D is incorrect. The queue value indicates the number of packets in the queue.

Question 17

Answer B is correct. The debug eigrp packet command traces transmission and receipt of EIGRP packets. Answer A is incorrect. The debug ip eigrp command displays packets that the router sends and receives ”including content information. Answer C is incorrect. The show ip eigrp topology displays entries in the EIGRP topology table. Answer D is incorrect. Use the show ip eigrp interfaces command to determine on which interfaces Enhanced IGRP is active, and to find out information about Enhanced IGRP relating to those interfaces.

Question 18

Answer C is correct. When there is no feasible successor route, a discovery process that uses EIGRP queries and replies is used to find a loop-free alternate pathway . Answer A is incorrect. The EIGRP process does not stop in response to the loss of any route. Answer B is incorrect. The router does not wait for updates from other routers in this situation; it proactively begins a discovery process. Answer D is incorrect. The route with the lowest feasible distance is not automatically utilized.

Question 19

Answers A and B are correct. The ip default-network command can be used to distribute default route information to other routers via EIGRP. It has no functionality for the router on which it is configured. Answer C is incorrect because the router on which this command is issued does not adjust its gateway of last resort information. Routers that receive the advertisements do. Answer D is incorrect because this command does not control which interfaces participate in EIGRP advertisements.

Question 20

Answer A is correct. The show ip protocols command enables you to verify EIGRP settings. This includes the current K value settings. Answer B is incorrect. The show ip route command enables you to view the current routing table, but it does not provide K value information ”only final metric calculations for routes. Answer C is incorrect. The show ip route eigrp command shows you the same information as show ip route , except the routes are exclusively EIGRP routes. Answer D is incorrect because show ip eigrp topology lists the networks known by the router, but does not provide K value information.

Question 21

Answer B is correct. OSPF relies upon multicasts to send updates. This is more efficient than broadcast approaches like those used in RIP version 1. Answer A is incorrect because OSPF does not rely on broadcasts to send updates. Answer D is incorrect. OSPF uses multicasts, not unicasts to send updates. Answer C is incorrect. It uses the multicast address 224.0.0.5 for this purpose.

Question 22

Answer D is correct. The " paranoid update" process occurs every 30 minutes by default. Answers A, B, C, and E are incorrect. The default time of the update is 30 minutes. Every other interval presented here is incorrect.

Question 23

Answers A and D are correct. The router ospf command is a global configuration command. After you are in router configuration mode for OSPF, it is common to "train" the router regarding which interfaces are to participate in the routing protocol. This is done with the network command. Answer B is incorrect. The router ospf is not a router configuration mode command. In fact, the command causes the router to enter router configuration mode. Answer C is incorrect. The number 10 is the process ID. It does not have to match the value configured on other routers. It is an internal use “only value.

Question 24

Answer B is correct. The command network 10.30.12.1 0.0.0.0 area 1 specifies that the 10.30.12.1 interface participates in OSPF and is in area 1. The all-zeros wildcard mask ensures that the specific interface address is matched. Answer A is incorrect because it fails to specify the wildcard mask. Answers C and D are incorrect because they use the wrong wildcard mask. Answer E is incorrect because it specifies the network and also uses an inappropriate wildcard mask.

Question 25

Answer D is correct. The router-id command enables you to force the router-ID value of an OSPF router and is the preferred configuration for this value. Answer A is incorrect. Using a loopback interface is the most common method of setting the value, but it is not the most preferred method. Answer B is incorrect. Cisco does not recommend setting this value through the use of a physical interface address. Answer C is incorrect. There is no such command as ip ospf router id , as presented in option C.

Question 26

Answers B and D are correct. To display general information about OSPF routing processes, use the show ip ospf command in EXEC mode. The use of this command enables you, among other things, to view the local router ID value. The show ip ospf interfaces command provides OSPF- related details for each interface and includes router ID information. Answer A is incorrect. The show ip interface brief command provides summary information for all IP interfaces, but does not provide router ID information. Answer C is incorrect. You use show ip ospf neighbors to verify OSPF adjacencies in your network.

Question 27

Answer C is correct. When you configure a router priority of 0, the router does not participate in OSPF as a DR or BDR. The router does appear as DROTHER. Answers A and B are incorrect. Because the router has a priority of 0, it cannot function as DR or BDR. Answer D is incorrect because DIS is a router role in IS-IS.

Question 28

Answer B is correct. The nonbroadcast ip ospf network command option utilizes one IP subnet; neighbors must be manually configured; DR and BDR are elected; they must have connectivity with all other routers; this mode is typically used in a partial-mesh topology. Answer A is incorrect. The broadcast option makes the WAN interface appear to be a LAN. This configuration requires a full mesh topology. Answer C is incorrect. In the point-to-multipoint configuration, the DR and BDR are not required. Answer D is incorrect. The point-to-point configuration also does not feature a DR or BDR election.

Question 29

Answer B is correct. Type 2 LS Types are network link advertisements. Answer A is incorrect. LS Types of 1 are router link advertisements. Answer C is incorrect. LS Types of 3 or 4 are summary link advertisements. Answer D is incorrect. An LS Type 5 is an AS external link advertisement. Answer E is incorrect. LS Type 6 advertisements are multicast OSPF LSAs. Answer F is incorrect. LS Type 7 is defined for not-so-stubby areas.

Question 30

Answer A is correct. Type O E1 external routes calculate the cost by adding the external cost to the internal cost of each link that the packet crosses. Answer D is incorrect. The external cost of O E2 packet routes is always the external cost only. Answers C and D are incorrect. There are no E3 and E4 routes.

Question 31

Answer A is correct. Level 1 routing deals with IS-IS routing within an area. Answer B is incorrect. Level 2 routing involves routing between areas within the same domain. Answer C is incorrect. Level 3 routing involves routing between domains. Answer D is incorrect. Level 0 routing involves routing from an ES to an IS system.

Question 32

Answer C is correct. A fixed length of six octets is used for the system ID in Cisco software. In this NSAP, the system ID is 0000.0C22.2222. Answer A is incorrect. 49.0001 is the AFI and the IDI portion of the address. Answer B is incorrect. 00 is the NSEL. Answer D is incorrect. 49.0001.0000 is the AFI, the IDI, and a portion of the system ID.

Question 33

Answer C is correct. For frame relay connections the DLCI is used as the SNPA. Answer A is incorrect. The MAC address is the SNPA for Ethernet interfaces. Answer B is incorrect. HDLC is the default SNPA for serial interfaces. Answer D is incorrect. The NET is not a SNPA type.

Question 34

Answer C is correct. IS-IS is not designed with NBMA networks in mind. As such, a point-to-point design is most appropriate. Answer A is incorrect. The use of broadcast mode assumes full mesh and requires static mappings; it is not recommended for NBMA networks. Answers B and D are incorrect. There is no such representation as the point-to-multipoint in IS-IS, nor is there a static map mode.

Question 35

Answer C is correct. A partial sequence number packet is used to acknowledge LSPs in IS-IS. Answer A is incorrect. ACKs are not used in IS-IS. Answer B is incorrect. The IIH is a hello packet in IS-IS. Answer D is incorrect. A LSP is not used to acknowledge another LSP.

Question 36

Answer A is correct. The show clns route command displays the CLNS prefix routing table and the local NET entry. Answer B is incorrect. The show isis route command displays the level 1 IS-IS routing table. Answer C is incorrect. The show clns protocol command is often used to display the system ID and area ID. Answer D is incorrect. The show clns neighbors command enables you to view adjacencies information.

Question 37

Answer D is correct. To configure the NSAP address on the Cisco router, use the net router configuration mode command. Answers A and B are incorrect.

The network command is not used in IS-IS. Answer C is incorrect. The net command is not an interface configuration mode.

Question 38

Answer C is correct. You can use the is-type level-2-only command to preconfigure the IS-IS level on a router. Answer A is incorrect. The circuit-type command enables you to control adjacencies, not control the level of the router. Answer B is incorrect. Level-2 is not a valid is-type keyword. Answer D is incorrect because this configuration actually is possible.

Question 39

Answer A is correct. The appropriate NSEL value is 00. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. 00 is the only acceptable NSEL value for a NET on a Cisco router.

Question 40

Answers A, B, and C are correct. Any router connected to area 0 is considered a backbone router. A router that connects two areas is an ABR. Finally, a router that connects to a non-OSPF area is an ASBR. Answers D and E are incorrect because there are no such terms as internal router and external router in OSPF.

Question 41

Answer D is correct. The synchronization rule states that BGP routers should not use, nor advertise to an external neighbor, routes learned via IBGP until a matching route has been learned via an IGP. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. All other definitions stated here of the synchronization rule are not accurate.

Question 42

Answers A and I are correct. BGP relies upon TCP port 179. Answer B is incorrect. ICMP is used for ping and other mainly diagnostic functions. Answer C is incorrect. UDP is an unreliable protocol and as such is not used by BGP. Answer D is incorrect. SNMP is used for network management. Answer E is incorrect. IP is the Network layer protocol for the TCP packet. Answer F, G, and H are incorrect. The correct port number is 179.

Question 43

Answer C is correct. The only requirement for adjacencies is the establishment of a direct TCP connection. Answer A is incorrect. BGP routers do not require direct connectivity. Answer B is incorrect because the routers do not need to exist in the same AS. Answer D is incorrect. BGP relies upon a complex set of metrics that do not need to match on adjacent routers.

Question 44

Answers A, B and D are correct. Match , metric , and route-map are all valid parameters for the redistribute command. Answer C is incorrect. Level is a valid attribute for the redistribute command when used with IS-IS.

Question 45

Answers A, B, and C are correct. Distribute lists are powerful methods for manipulating the default routing behavior. The incoming interface of the advertisement, the routing protocol originating the advertisement, and the outgoing interface of the advertisement are all possible criteria for manipulating the default behavior. Answer D is incorrect. The administrative distance of a route is not a valid criteria component for distribute lists.

Question 46

Answers B, C, and D are correct. Route maps enable you to match traffic by interface, length, and even next -hop information. Answer A is incorrect. There is no match type possibility.

Question 47

Answer A is the correct answer. The value of 10 sets the metric for incoming routes in this case. Answer B is incorrect. Here the redistribution is into OSPF, not RIP. Answers C and D are incorrect. The metric value used in redistribution is not added to the metric value of the injected route; it resets the metric value to the specified parameter.

Question 48

Answer C is correct. Here you use the neighbor 192.168.1.2 remote-as 65000 command to configure the neighbor. The remote-as keyword is always used, even in the configuration of an "internal" neighbor. Answers A and B are incorrect and will produce syntax errors. Answer D is incorrect because the configuration is possible.

Question 49

Answer D is correct. The clear ip bgp soft out option allows a "soft" reset for outbound updates. Answer A is incorrect. The clear ip bgp * command resets all BGP connections with this router. Answer B is incorrect. Using an IP address with the command resets only a single router. Answer C is incorrect.

Question 50

Answer C is correct. You use the aggregate-address command to manually summarize addressing. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. All other commands presented here are invalid for use with BGP.

Question 51

Answers A and C are correct. BGP is appropriate when multiple connections exist to other autonomous systems and routing control is required. It is also appropriate when you need strict controls over traffic entering the AS. Answer D is incorrect. It is not appropriate when bandwidth levels are low. Answer B is incorrect. BGP is not required when you have a single connection to the Internet.

Question 52

Answers A, B, and C are correct. An open message includes version number, AS number, holdtime, and router ID. Answer D is incorrect. Notification messages include an error code.

Question 53

Answer B is correct. You may use the neighbor ip-address next-hop-self command when you need to control the default next-hop behavior of BGP. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect. All other commands here produce a syntax error, or are inappropriate for use with BGP.

Question 54

Answers A, D, and E are correct. Well-known mandatory attributes include AS-path , next-hop , and origin values. Answer B is incorrect. Local preference is a well-known discretionary attribute, whereas answer C is incorrect. aggregator is a optional transitive attribute.

Question 55

Answers B, C, and D are correct. All these options are valid criteria for best path decisions in BGP. Answer A is incorrect. BGP prefers the highest weight value.

Question 56

Answer C is correct. Entries flagged with a ? have an unknown value or have been injected by an IGP. Answer A is incorrect because i entries indicate iBGP. Answer B is incorrect because e indicates eBGP. Answer D is incorrect. There is no indication for a lack of verification.

Question 57

Answer A is correct. To manipulate the local preference value on a Cisco router, use the bgp default local-preference command. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect, and will produce a syntax error.

Question 58

Answer A is correct. The default MED for a Cisco router is 0. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. All other values here for the default MED are incorrect.

Question 59

Answer C is correct. Injecting default routes from all providers minimizes the impact on resources for the non-ISP equipment. Answer A is incorrect. Full routes from all providers require the greatest number of resources on the non-ISP equipment. Answer B is incorrect. Customer routes and default route information require nominal overhead, but still more than default routes only. Answer D is incorrect because there is an answer.

Question 60

Answer B is correct. If prefix list numbering is not assigned by the administrator, the numbering begins at 5 and increments by 5. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect. All other options here are incorrect. To increment by any number other than 5, an administrator must configure the new value.



Cisco BSCI Exam Cram 2 (Exam Cram 642-801)
CCNP BSCI Exam Cram 2 (Exam Cram 642-801)
ISBN: 0789730170
EAN: 2147483647
Year: 2003
Pages: 170

flylib.com © 2008-2017.
If you may any questions please contact us: flylib@qtcs.net